CSIR study material - Research Methodology and Aptitude

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Research - Definitions

Action research is a methodology that combines action and research to examine specific questions, issues or phenomena through observation and reflection, and deliberate intervention to improve practice.

Applied research is research undertaken to solve practical problems rather than to acquire knowledge for knowledge sake.

Basic research is experimental and theoretical work undertaken to acquire new knowledge without looking for long-term benefits other than the advancement of knowledge.

Qualitative research is research undertaken to gain insights concerning attitudes, beliefs, motivations and behaviours of individuals to explore a social or human problem and include methods such as focus groups, in-depth interviews, observation research and case studies.

Quantitative research is research concerned with the measurement of attitudes, behaviours and perceptions and includes interviewing methods such as telephone, intercept and door-to-door interviews as well as self-completion methods such as mail outs and online surveys.

Three basic types of questions that research projects:

Descriptive:
When a study is designed primarily to describe what is going on or what exists. Public opinion polls that seek only to describe the proportion of people who hold various opinions are primarily descriptive in nature. For instance, if we want to know what percent of the population would vote for a BJP or Congress in the next election, we are simply interested in describing something.

Relational: When a study is designed to look at the relationships between two or more variables. A public opinion poll that compares what proportion of males and females say they would vote for a BJP or Congress candidate in the next election is essentially studying the relationship between gender and voting preference.

Causal: When a study is designed to determine whether one or more variables (e.g., a program or treatment variable) causes or affects one or more outcome variables. If we did a public opinion poll to try to determine whether a recent political advertising campaign changed voter preferences, we would essentially be studying whether the campaign (cause) changed the proportion of voters who would vote BJP or Congress (effect).

Time is an important element of any research design. The most fundamental distinctions in research design nomenclature: cross-sectional versus longitudinal studies. A cross-sectional study is one that takes place at a single point in time. In effect, we are taking a 'slice' or cross-section of whatever it is we're observing or measuring. A longitudinal study is one that takes place over time -- we have at least two (and often more) waves of measurement in a longitudinal design.

A variable is any entity that can take on different values. Anything that can vary can be considered a variable. For instance, age can be considered a variable because age can take different values for different people or for the same person at different times. Similarly, country can be considered a variable because a person's country can be assigned a value.

There is a distinction between an independent and dependent variable. In fact the independent variable is what you (or nature) manipulates -- a treatment or program or cause. The dependent variable is what is affected by the independent variable -- your effects or outcomes. For example, if you are studying the effects of a new educational program on student achievement, the program is the independent variable and your measures of achievement are the dependent ones.

A hypothesis is a specific statement of prediction. It describes in concrete (rather than theoretical) terms what you expect will happen in your study. Not all studies have hypotheses. Sometimes a study is designed to be exploratory.

CSIR study material - Research Methodology and Aptitude Part-2

New CSIR NET JRF exam Pattern June 2011

CSIR-UGC (NET) EXAM FOR AWARD OF JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP AND ELIGIBILITY FOR LECTURERSHIP

EXAM SCHEME FOR SINGLE PAPER CSIR-UGC NET Exam FROM June 2011

CSIR-UGC NET Exam for Science stream is conducted by CSIR in the following areas: -

  1. Chemical Sciences
  2. Earth Sciences
  3. Life Sciences
  4. Mathematical Sciences
  5. Physical Sciences

It has been decided to introduce Single Paper MCQ (Multiple Choice Question) based test from June 2011 exam. The pattern for the Single Paper MCQ test shall be as given below:-

- The MCQ test paper of each subject shall carry a maximum of 200 marks.

- The exam shall be for duration of three hours.

- The question paper shall be divided in three parts


Part 'A' shall be common to all subjects. This part shall be a test containing a maximum of 20 questions of General Science and Research Aptitude test. The candidates shall be required to answer any 15 questions of two marks each. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200


Part 'B' shall contain subject-related conventional MCQs. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 70 out of 200. The maximum number of questions to be attempted shall be in the range of 25-35.


Part 'C' shall contain higher value questions that may test the candidate's knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 100 out of 200.


A negative marking for wrong answers, wherever required, shall be @ 25%

The new pattern shall be implemented from June, 2011 exam

Model Question Papers in the new format shall be made available along with Notification for the June, 2011 exam.

500 General Biology questions for CSIR first paper

1.Which one of the following is a green house gas? Carbon dioxide
2. The tallest living tree is Sequoia
3. Which on of the following plants is biennial? Carrot
4. Sea weeds are an important source of iodine
5. Polio is caused by virus
6. "Ozone" as such protects the earth from ultraviolet sunrays
7. The climatic changes, soil erosion and decreased rainfall is due to deforestation
8. AGHARK is a quality assurance for agricultural products
9. Refrigeration is a process which slows down the bacterial growth
10. The blue-green algae are photoautotrophs
11. Which of the following acts as a coenzyme? Zn++
12. The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is 3:1
13. Smallest measuring unit in cytology is angstrom
14. It is believed that live evolved in its early stage under oxygen-free condition. Which of the following organisms might have been able to survive in that environment? obligate anaerobic bacteria
15. Sexual reproduction is absent in which of the group of fungi mentioned below? Deuteromycetes
16. One of the characteristics that differentiates prokaryotes from eukaryotes is Membrane-bound organelles
17. The most common method of vegetative reproduction in usnea is soredia
18. Which of the fungi mentioned below is employed as a genetic tool? Neurospora
19. Heterotrichous habit is exhibited by Ectocarpus
20. Photosynthesis cannot take place in ultraviolet light
22. What is the cause for deforestation? rapid explosion of human and live stock population
23. How soil get eroded? by floods and rains
24. The shape of Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV) is spherical in shape
26. Polyploidy is most common in plant kingdom
27. In photosynthesis, the light reaction is known as hill reaction and the dark reaction is known as Blackman reaction
28. DNA structure was first described by Watson and Crick
29. What is an example for cymose in florescence? Crotalaria
30. Rice is a stape food of people of India. In the milling process, polishing is the final process and the polished rice is rich in starch
31. The ratio 9:3:3:1 represents a ratio of dihybrid
32. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Manihot – Grain
33. Gnetum is a climber
34. Largest living tree on earth is sequoia
35. Protonema appears in the life cycle of Riccia
36. Sugar is obtained from all these
37. When a plat cell is placed in a sugar solution …. takes place. osmosis
38. The kinds of ribose nucleic acid present in any plant cell will be 2
39. Vernation means the arrangement of leaf outside the bud
40. In plants, energy is produced during photosynthesis
41. The yellowing of leaf is caused by the deficiency of iron
42. Identify the correct sequence of evolution in plants: Thallophyte – Bryophyte - Pteridophyte-Gymnosperms
43. The vascular bundles arranged in a cycas petiole is inverted omega (U) shaped
44. Which one of these is correctly matched? Paddy – Blast disease
45. When the soil is rich in organic debris, it is known as Humus soil
46. A plant growing inside another plant of different species symbiotically is called Endophyte
47. "Survival of the fittest" was proposed in his theory of evolution by Darwin
48. In rice polish which is left as a residue none of the above
49. This pteridophyte produces two kinds of spores selaginella
50. Lepidodendron is a fossil which represents stem
51. These cells are loosely arranged in a plant body parenchyma
52. Maximum rate of photosynthesis occurs in white light
53. Resupination is a characteristic feature to the flowers of this family
orchidaceae
54. Gemma cup is present in Riccia
55. Which one is correctly matched? Bengal gram-shrub
56. How many types of cell division are there in plant cells? 3
57. Flowers emit fragrance to attract insects
58. Recently pattern right was given to which plant in America Turmeric
59. Reduction in chromosome number occurs after Meiosis
60. The male cone of cyas consists Microsporangia
61. Botanical name of paddy is Oryza sativa
62. The male filament of oedo gonium is known as Nannandrium
63. Guard cells in the stomata help in transpiration
64. Syngenesis means union of filaments
65. Identify the correct sequence of protein synthesis Messenger RNA – Polyribosomes – aminoacid+tRNA-Polypetide
66. The study of individual plant throughout their life – history in relation to the environment is called synecology
67. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Jute-phloem fibre
68. Fern phrothallus is Gametophyte
69. What is the correct sequence of the life cycle of fern? Zygote-Sporophyte-Spore-Gametophyte
72. Which of the following lights is necessary for photosynthesis? red
73. The fruit of Tomato belongs to the type? berry
74. The edible part of Cauliflower is flower
75. The genetic material of a cell resides in DNA
76. An ecosystem has two components, namely biotic and abiotic
77. Development of a sporophyte directly from the sporophytic tissue is called double fertilization
78. Root hairs absorb water from the soil on account of difference is osmotic concentration
79. Pollination by birds is known as ornithophily
80. Autotrophs in an ecosystem are called producers
81. A dye is prepared from indigofera
82. What is the phenotypic ratio of complementary genes in pea? 9:7
83. Thymidine is a nitrogenous base found in DNA
85. The first effective vaccine against polio was prepared by Jone E.Salk
86. Which among the following is a non photosynthetic pigment? chlorophyll – a
87. Unit of classification is family
88. Plant that grow in saline water are called halophytes
89. Diatomaceous earth is a deposit of organisms of bacillariophyceae
90. The physiological phenomenon considered as a "necessary evil" in plants is transpiration
91. The type of phyllotaxy in caltropis is opposite decussate
92. Franks produces root nodules in casuarinas
93. Red tides are caused by red algae
94. The development of fruit without fertilization is known as parthenocarpy
95. The agent that carries informantion from DNA to RNA is m-RNA
96. To induce callus which one of the following chemicals is necessary? NAA
97. Arachis hypogaea (groundnut) belongs to the family Musaceae
98. A definite number of cells arranged in a specific manner in an algal colony is known as thallus
99. Which of the groups of plants mentioned below consists of phycobiont and mycobiont living together as an unit? lichens
100. Which of the scientists mentioned below for the first time, observed and described bacteria?
Anton Van Leewenhoek
101. The cambium present within a vascular bundle is known interfascicular cambium
102. The outermost layers of rice grain endosperm rich in proteins, vitamins and minerals are known as Aleurone layers
103. Syngenesious anther is an important characteristic feature of
104. Heterospory leading to the establishment of seed habit is observed in selaginella
105. Which of the monocots mentioned below shows anomalous secondary thickening? Asparagus
106. The botanical name for neem is Azadirachta indica
107. Meristeles are usually present is Ferns
108. Winged pollen grains are present in Pinus
109. Aprogeotropic and coral-like roots are produced in taxus
110. What drug is experimented in the treatment of AIDS? AZT
111. Lysosomes are known as Suicide bags
112. The algae used by calvin and his co-workers in elucidating the pathway of carbon in photosynthesis is Chlorella
113. Heredity characters are carried to the next generation by chromosome
114. Nobel prize for the study of the structure of DNA was won by Watson and Crick
115. Global warming is due to the release of this gas carbon dioxide
116. The secret behind Mendel's success in his experiments lies in this there are 7 pairs of strikingly contrasting characters in the garden peaplant
117. This is used as a biofertilizer Azolla
119. Choose the appropriate one connected with heterospory ophioglossum, marsilea
120. Which one of the following is responsible for guttation in Ruhr leaf? transpiration
121. The bacterium Escherichia coli is present in the colon of human beings
122. Turpentine is obtained from pinus
123. The metal ion involved in stomatal regulations is potassium
124. Which one of the following is concerned with the production of ATP molecules? cisternae
126. The ratio 3:1 is obtained in monohybrid cross
128. Which of the following is not correctly matched? Ethylene – Fruit ripening
129. Coralloid roots are found in cycas
130. Pulses contain large amount of proteins
131. Which one is a xerophyte? Ceratophyllum
132. Which of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria? influenza
133.Which one of the following is correctly matched? Iwanoski-Discovery of virus
134. Gymnosperms are open seeded plants
135. Reduction division is Meiosis
136. The female sex organ of polytrichum is Archegonium
137. DNA mode was first proposed by Watson and Crick
139. Mendel did his hybridization experiments in this plant Pea plant
140. The sun's energy is fixed in the world by green plants
141. Fixation of nitrogen in the soil is done by bacteria
142. Plasmodium belong to this group protozoa
143. Genes are located on chromosomes
144. Select the correct order in the life-cycle of a bryophyte Sporophyte-Spores-Fertilization-Gametophyte
145. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Tetanus-virus
146. The botanical name of Bengal gram is Cicer arietnum
147. Select the correct order of stages in mitosis: Prophase, anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
148. A pure breeding dwarf pea plant (tt) on hybridization with a pure breeding tall plant (TT ) will produce dwarf and tall plants in the ratio (in F2 generation) of 1:3
149. The male sex organ in chara is called as Globule
150. Bacteria were first discovered by Anton Van Leeuvenhoek
151. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Polytrichum-Algae
152. Which one of the following tissues conducts food material in plants? phloem
153. Penicillin is a/an antibiotic
154. Polio is caused by virus
155. The energy needed by the living organism is ultimately obtained from
sum
156. In plants, water is conducted by xylem
157. Peristomes are present in
polytrichum
158. The weed which reached India as a contaminant of wheat imported unfrt PL 480 scheme is parthenium
159. Polio is caused by a virus
160. Tobacco contains a poisonous substance called nicotine
161. Palaeobotany deals with the study of Fossil plants
162. The work 'Biosphere' means total assembly of all living organisms
163. Microbial world was discovered is the year 1673
164. Gametophtyes are all these
165. Presence of a cambium indicates open vascular bundle
166. The phyllotaxy of Gnetum is opposite
168. The sperm in cycas is top-shaped and multiciliate
169. Circinate vernation of leaves is a typical character of ferms
170. All fungi are always heterotrophs
171. Why blue green algae are called cyano bacteria? because they are prokaryotic
172. The gymnosperms resemble angiosperms in having presence of ovules
173. The disease caused by the fungus colletotrichum falcatum is known as red rot
174. Dendrochronology is the study of age of a tree with the help of annual rings
175. Clove is obtained from which of the plants parts given below? flower buds
177. Which of the algae given below grows in sewage ponds? volvox
178. Which of the plant groups mentioned below are popularly known as amphibious of plant kingdom? bryophytes
179. DNA double helical structure was described for the first time by Watson and Crick
180. Cataclytically active enzyme is
called apoenzyme
181. Water droplets at the tip of the leaf are due to guttation
183. The age of a tree can be determined by counting the annual growth rings
184. The name "Traveller's palm" refers to revenala madagas cariensis
185. Phyllode is seen in the plant Acacia melanoxylon
186. Polyploids can be artificially induced by colchicines
187. Parthenocarpy can be induced by IAA
188. Raphanobrassica was discovered by Karpachanko
189. When FADH2 is oxidized, the following number of ATP is produced 2
190. Half leaf experiment proves the essentiality of CO2
191. The universal Co2 acceptor molecule is called PEP
192. In anoxygenic photosynthesis, which of the following takes part as electron donors? H2S
193. Velamen root is found in vanda
194. Rosewood is obtained from dalbergia latifolia
195. Penicillin was invented by A.Fleming
196. Spirulina which is a source of SCP is a blue green algae
197. Chlorophyll is formed in the presence of magnesium
198. Hormone involved in phototropism is Auxin
199. Father of genetic is Gregor Mendel
200. The main function of RNA is protein synthesis

201. An example of a Hesperidium is Citrus
202. Which of these is an antibiotic?
aureomycin
203. The number of dry plants in the herbarin found in the Indian botanical garden at kolkata is about 1 million
204. Mycoses are diseases caused by fungi
205. Which one of the following is not a correct pair in relation to function? Golgi complex-breakdown of complex molecules
206. The parasitic algae is cephaleuros
207. In which plant are scleroids abundant? none of these
208. The fruiting body namely, cleistothecium is formed in puccinia
209. If the genetic name of the fossil
plant ends with "dendron" or "xylon" it denotes the stem of the fossil
210. Sewage treatment is carried out with the help of bacteria
211. "Ikebana" pertains to floral arrangement
212. The bacterium which lives in the human intestine is E. coli
213. The first to isolate a plant virus is W.M. Stanley
214. National Botanical Research institute is situated at Coimbatore
215. In plants, the radial transport of food, water and mineral salts is performed by secondary phloem
216. Grafting cannot be practiced in monocotyledonous plants because they do not have cambium
217. Mycology is the study of fungi
218. The group of plants containing algal and fungal partners in association are called Thallophytes
219. The largest cell found in plant kingdom is that of Acetabularia
220. Electron microscope was invented by Knoll and Ruska
221. Apple is false fruit
222. Genes are located on the chromosomes in a linear manner
223. Soil erosion leads to loss of vegetation
224. The plant used by Mendel in his early experiments was Pea plant
225. The medicine prepared by genetic exchange in bacteria is Insulin
226. Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming
227. The leaves with sori are called as sporophylls
228. Saprophytic organism is fungi
229. The plant used by Mendel for his research was pea plant
232. Which one of the following statements is wrong about meiosis? it happens in the meristematic region
235. Which one of the following plants is used in the treatment of Jaundice? Eclipta
236. Which of the following is wrongly matched? Streptococcus lactis-Vinegar production
237. The smallest angiosperm is wolfia
238. Identify the correct sequence of following Glycolysis, Krebs' cycle, Electron transport ATP synthesis
239. Which one of the following is correctly matched? Ribosomes-protein synthesis
240. The stiffness of paddy straw is due to silica
241. Which of the following plants is endemic? Ginkgo
242. The wood is made of primary xylem
244. "Berry" fruit is found in Tomato
245. DNA structure was discovered by Watson and crick
246. The growing of plants under soilless condition is called? hydrophonics
247. Spore is a asexual reproductive cell
248. Quickly available respiratory substrate is starch
249. In nature, ammonification takes place in ditch
250. What kind of plant is an 'alga'? chlorophyllous

251. Ganong's photometer is used in the study of transpiration
252. Coconut is dispersed in nature by water
253. Pillar roots of Banyan help in the support of the branches
254. The organic compounds that contain nitrogen is protein
255. Which one of the following is a climax forest? Thorn forest
256. Red colour of riped tomato is due to chromatophore
257. Cultivation of trees and vegetables is Arboriculture
258. Jaya is variety of Cotton
259. Absorption of water by plants takes place when the sun shines
260. Which are the most important element necessary for plant growth? Oxygen, Iron, Phosphorus
261. Osmosis is synonymous with none of these
262. What is the first stable product of photosynthesis? sugar
263. The water absorbed by the plant moves through xylem tissues
264. Ganong's photometer is used to measure the loss of water by plants
265. What does phloem tissue have? sieve elements
266. Piliferous layer of root is produced from epidermal cells
267. Endodermis is found as a single layer of cells forming the outermost layer of the stele
268. The fascicular cambium is present in the stem of sorghum
269. Dixon and jolly formulated their theory on the ascent of sap in plants based on union of water molecules
270. Find out the only plant among the four give below. Which is not a xerophyte? Euphorbia tirucally
271. Which do you find the largest number of Eucalyptus species? india
280.The electron transport chain is a group of molecules located in the
outer membrane of mitochondria
281. What is penicillium? fungus
282. Inside a seed, the plant remains in a/an dormant state
283. Plasmids are used as vectors in gene transfer. They are present in certain bacteria
284. Transgenic plants and animals can be produced through genetic engineering
285. Guttation is a process in plants by which excess of water is removed as water drops
286. Ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen is found in some blue green algae
287. Opposite decussate phyllotaxy is seen in Calotropis
288. The natural system of classification was postulated by Bentham and hooker
289. In plants, energy is produced during the process of photosynthesis
290. In which of the following the pollen grains are lilberated as clouds of yellow powder and also called "Sulphur shower"? Pinus
291. In Botany, the Latin names are used because in whole world there would be only on name for one plant
292. The flowers are variously coloured to attract insects
293. Agar-Agar is derived from Gelidium
294. The plant which is used as medicine for jaundice is phyllanthus
295. The most commonly used higher plant vector for gene transfer is Ti plasmid
296. Genetic material kof virus is/are DNA (or) RNA
297. Primary organs of photosynthesis are leaves
298. The abundance of blue-green algae in paddy fields results in saving on potash
299. Sessile leaves are seen in Calotropis
300. Angiosperms are spermatophytes
301. The green leaves performing photosynthesis are know as foliage leaves
302. Mango is an example for tree
303. Mitosis and Meiosis are absent in bacteria
304. Cotton fibres are obtained from cotton fruits
305. Bacteria which are spherical in shape are known as coccus
306. Viruses are in between non-living and living organisms
307. Thallophytes used as food include algae and fungi
308. The structure of DNA was discovered by Watson and crick
309. Which of the following flowing is unisexual? Bottle guard
310. The substrate most important for genetic engineering is Nucleous
311. Which of the following is a prokaryote? Blue - green algae
312. With what technology do you associate 'callus' with? pollen analysis
313. Penicillin was discovered by Alexandedr Flemming
314. Which of the following is a bacterial disease? Tuberculosis
315. Which one of the following is a woody climber? Gnetum
317. Which one of the following is not a pulse? Chloris barbata
318. E.coli is living in the human intestine
319. Which one of the following is wrong? Man is not responsible for the destruction of natural resource
320. Direct cell division is otherwise known as Amitosis
321. Which medicine is used in the treatment of AIDS? Azidothymidine
323. Founder of Binomial nomenclature is Carl Linnaeus
324. The roots coverd with fungal hyphens are Mycorrhizal roots
326. We should not sleep under the tree during night because the trees release more carbon dioxide
327. Which of the following is used in the preparation of digestive tablets? yeasts
328. The bacterial action in milk is acidic
329. Streptomycin is produced by fungi
330. One of the following is called the vascular cryptogams none of these
331. Disease causing bacteria a called pathogenic
332. Ergot is obtained froms claviceps purpurea
333. after development ovule forms seed
334. Which of the following can be recyled metal
335. The mechanism of heredity was explained first by Mendel
336. Viruses are inert outside host cell
339. The genetic material of a cell resides in DNA
340. Which part of cinchona is used for malaria cure? bark
341. Arachis hypogea is the binomial name of groundnut
342. Antibiotic penicillin is obtained from fungi
345. A bacteriophage is a virus that attacks bacteria and destroy them
346. Ribosomes in a cell play a significant role in protein synthesis
347. Baker's yeast is saccharomyces cerevisae
348. The tallest tree occurs in gymnosperms
349. The poisonous substance that is present is tobacco is nicotine
350. Which of the following is used for culture medium of bacterial growth?
351. one of the following is the simplest land plant Bryophytes
352. Bacteria generally multiply by binary fission
353. Agaar- agar is obtained from gelidium
354. Which of th following grows on wet bread? yeasts
355. Nitrogen fixation is done by blue-green algae
356. Which bacteria produce vinegar in sugar solution? acetobacter aceti
357. Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming
358. Yeasts help in the production of alcohol
359. Many pulses are obtained from
plants of the family Fabaceae
360. Emasculation is removal of stamens
361. "Donann equilibrium", a theory which explains the physiological phenomenon is called mineral absorption
362. Bacterial action changes dead leaves into humus
363. Which of the following is not a fruit? Potato
364. Litmus is obtained from an algae
365. 'Gemma Cup' is found in Marchantia
366. The plants which include underclass hepaticopsida are generally called as liver worts
367. Which of the following genera possesses long shoots and dwarf shoots? cycas
368. Each virus is made up of nucleic acid and protein
369. Water of coconut is degenerated liquid endosperm
370. A herbarium is a centre for the preservation of dried specimen of plants
371. Agar-agar is obtained from Geledium
372. Golgi bodies of plant cells are also called as Dictyosoms
373. The nucleic acids of virus must be Either DNA (or) RNA
374. Pollinia are found in one of the following families Apocyanacease
375. The system of binomial nomenclature was proposed by Linnaeous
377. Bacteria which convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates are denitrifying bacteria
378. Parallel venation is found in paddy
379. Hard fibres are generally got from tropical dicot plants
380. Cell membrane fo plant cells are also called as plasma membrane
381. First land inhabiting plants are Gymnosperms
382. The seed germination type found in pinus is hypogeal
383. The process by which plants lose water by liquid status is transpiration
384. The root in mangrove tree is respiratory
385. Mango is a drupe
386. Chlorosis is linked with chlorophyll
387. Paddy is a caryopsis
388. Plant viruses are named as phytophage
389. TMV stands for Tobacco mosaic virus
390. The bacterium found in the large intestine is E.com
391. The bacterium present in the root nodule of leguminous plant is Rhizobium
392. Anaerobic decomposition of protoin is called ammonification
393. The father of Genetics is Mendel
394. The genotypic ratio of monohybrid ratio is 1:2:1
395. The double helix model of DNA was proposed by Watson and crick
396. Common cold is viral disease
397. W.M. Stanley got Nobel Prize for virus
398. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to hormones
400. The pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects are rough and sticky
401. Soyabean contains a high degrees of proteins
402. The age of a tree can be determined by counting the growth rings of its stem
404. Ground becomes slippery during the rainy season due to green algae
405. Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants?mycorrhiza
406. Carbon is available to plants as carbon dioxide
407. Photosynthesis is a bio-chemical process for the transfer of solar energy to food chain cycle
408. The fruit in member of poaceae is Caryopsis
409. The function of flower is reproduction
410. Penicillium is generally known as Fungus
411. The biggest herbarium of our country is located in Kolkata
412. Polytrichum plants belong to bryophyte
413. Which of the following flowers is sessible? mustard
414. Adiantum sporophytic plants have chromosome type of diploid
415. In which of the following is xerophytic present? calotropis
416. The study of inflorescence, flowers, fruits and seeds is known as reproductive morphology
417. In insectivorous plants which of the following elements is absenst or deficent Nitrogen
418. Viruses chemically called as nucleoproteins
419. Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming
420. The metal present in chlorophyll is magnesium
421. Based on the cellular type the algae chlorella belongs to Both (A) and (B)
422. Three major types of sexual reproduction found in algae may be isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
423. Those algae which grow in hot spring at about 85?C temperature are called as
424. To which of the following families do all pulses belong? Sporophytic phase
425. The evergreen plant body of gymnosperms is sporophytic phase
426. The ovules of an ovary are not naked in which of the following groups? angiosperms
427. Gigantism is a result of Auto-polyploidy
428. The most important purpose of insects to visit a flower is to collect honey
429. The inflorescence axis in banana is used to remove kidney stones
430. Who first discovered the penicillin? Alexanderd Fleming
431. Epiphytes are plants which depend an other plants only for shelter
432. Who has discovered the cell? Robert Hook
433. Which one of the following plants is an example of herb?Hibiscus
434. The sharp and pointed outgrowth present on the stem of rose are called spines
435. 'AIDS' is caused by virus
436. Streptomycinis produced from Streptomyces griseus
437. Iodine is obtained from Gelidium
438. The broad leaves of tall trees absorb rain clouds
439. Diffusion means the movement of molecules fro a region of greater concentration to lesser concentration
440. In some plants fruit formation takes place without fertilization which is called as parthenocarpy
441. Centrl Rice Research Institute is in Cuttack
442. The bacterium which has flagella all over the body is called as peritrichous
443. Moistur absorbing roots are seen in vandal
444. Secondary growth (or) width enlargement is usually absent in Monocotyledons
445. The number of plant species described on our earth is overd 4,00,000
446. The first person to see a cell under microsecope was Hooke
447. The drug chloromycetin is used for which disease?Tuberculosis
448. Leprosy is caused by bacteria
449. The study of external form of a plant is known as Morphology
450. A group of cells similar in structure and function is tissue
451. Those flowers which have both male and female reproductive parts are called unisexual
452. The other nama of the plant taxonomy is systematic botany
453. Plants takes nitrogen in the form of nitrates
454. Edible fungi are Agaricus
455. One of the following is useful for cheese making penicillium
456. Waterblooms are produced by algae
457. Viruses are all of these
458. Bacteria reproduce mostly asexually
459. Atmospheric CO2 can be reduced by the process of photosynthesis
460. which of the following cannot grow indeserts of Rajasthan? Banana
461. Bacteria are both (A) and (B)
462. Soil conservation is the process where soil is protected against erosion
463. Phytology is the study of algae
464. The largest flower is Rafflesia
465. The molecule with high energy phosphate bond in the cell is ATP
466. The root nodules containing Rhizobia occur in Fabaceae
467. Pasteurization of milk destroys its pathogenic bacteria
468. Atmospheric nitrogen is fixed in leguminous roots by bacteria
469.Gymnosperms are characterized by lacking ovaries
470. In food making industry the product of yeast culture utilised is
ethyl alcohol
471. One of the following is responsible for smut disease ustilago
472. Sexual reproduction is about in blue-green algae
473. Algin is obtained from brown algae
474. The virus which attacks E.coli is termed coliphage
475. Laminaria is an important source of iodine
476. 'Pond silk' is the common name of spirogyra
477. Pneumonia is caused by one of the following bacteria
478. Cotton fibre is obtained from the fruit
479. The largest producer of groundnut is India
480. India's largest mineral resource is coal
481. The gas evolved by leaves during photosynthesis is oxygen
482. After fertilization ovary is transformed into fruit
483. Green trees of the forests are generally called as food chain primary producers
484. Streptomycin was discovered by waksman
485. Kelp is brown algae
486. Habitat of penicillium is organic substance
487. Monocotyled are chaaracterised by fibrous root system
488. Typhoid is caused by bacteria
489. The ovules in gymnosplerms are exposed
490. Cell division useful for gamete formation is meiosis
491. Herbicide is used to kill the weeds
492. Tap root is positively geotropic
493. Seedless fruits are seen in all of these
494. Most advanced plants in the plant kingdom are angiosperms
495. Fibres are taken from plant as sclerenchyma cells
496. The process in which fruit is formed without fertilization is know as parthenocarpy
497. Calotropis is an example of the following phyllotaxy opposite and decussate
498. Phylloclade is a modified stem
499. Which of the following diseases is likely to spread in the entire community. If a leaky septic tank contaminates the water supply? Cholera
500. Where would the bacterium E.coli be readily found? human ഇന്റെസ്റിനെ

501. Quinine is made from cinchone bark
502. Phylllanthus nirui is a medicinal herb and it is used to cure jaundice
503. The dark reaction was worked out by an American scientist called Melvin Calvin
504. "Breathing roots" of mangrove plants are also called both (B) and (C)
505. Hydroponics is plant growth in liquid culture medium
506. Red tides are causd by red dinoflagellates
507. In angiosperms ovules develop into seeds
508. 'Tikka' disease is found in groundnut
509. The unicellular algae used in space craft to regulate oxygen supply is chlorella
510. Who is the well known Indian paleobotanist? Birbal sahni
511. Sharbati, Sonara, Kalyan Sona are the improved varieties of wheat
512. An algae yielding single cell protein of economic importance is spirulina
513. The process of transfer of desirable characters from on especies to other is known as selection
514. Wide variety of plants are observed in this tropical regions
515. Mycotoxins are pollutants because they affect most commonly water
516. Orchards are fruit garden
517. Foreign countries want to get plant materials of this plant from our country keeping in view the problem of chemical pesticides Azadirachta indica (neem)
518. Nitrogen fixation is generally brought about by Bacteria and blue green algae
519. "Pasteurization" means boiling and cooling to prevent microbial spoilage
521.Why is sprouted gram considered more nutritious? germinating seeds produce enzymes which are a rich source of protein
522. Which metal is present in green leaves? Magnesium
523. Pollinium found in the family Asclepiadaceae and Orchidaceae
524. Legume root nodule contains a protein pigment known as Leghaemoglobin
525. From the following,which one is edible fungi? Agaricus
526. Which type of cell gives mechanical support to the plant?Sclerenchyma
527. A sequence of nucleotides that specifies a particular polypeptide chain is called as gene
528. Cell wall is chemically made up of lignin, pectin and cellulose
529. Endocarp of fruit wall is innermost layer of fruit wall
530. Which group of organism is responsible for enriching soil fertility is an area? Micro-organisms
531. Amphibious plants with non-vascular nature group is called as bryophytes
532. Biggest herbarium located in south India is coimbatore
533. Smallest flowering plant is wolffia
534. Economic use of the genus araucaria gymnosperm plant is ornamental plant
535. First plant viruses were discovered in tobacco
536. The most characteristic feature of arthropoda is jointed appendages
537. The most successful vector in higher plants Ti-plasmid
538. one of the following is essential for seed germination water
539. The process by which RNA is formed from DNA is called transcription
540. Some plants develop fruits without fertilization, this phenomenon is called parthenocarpy
541.Which one of sthe following diseases is caused by viral infection? jaundice
542. Symbolic nitrogen fixation is done by Rhizobium
543. Lack of which element makes the plant insectivorous?Nitrogen
544. Founder of binomial nomenclature is Cark Linnaeus
545. Part of cinchona plant from which the drug quinine is obtained is bark
546. Turbantine is obtained from the plants of coniferales
547. Clover,the commonly used spice is obtained from the flower bud
548. Which one of the following p;ants produces allergenic pollen grains? congress grass
549. Opium is obtained from cannabis
550. Which one of the following is correctly matched? photosynthesis –Starch synthesis

551. Which one of the following is a major green house gas? CO2
552. The flow of genetic information from nucleic acid to protein is called transcription
553. Oxygen in the universe is replenished higher plant photosynthesis
554. Limnophylla haterophylla is an example of Amphibious plant
555. An example for a parasitic algae is cephaleuros
556. Atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed by Anabaena
557. In dycot roots, xylem is exarch
558. 'The father of Genetics''is G.J. Mendel
559. Which one of the following is not a hormone? lodine
560. Western Blot test is used in the diagnosis of AIDS
561. Pulses are rich in proteins
562. The pulp of the pear fruit is hard, because of the presence of sclereids
563. Pedology refers to the study of soil
564. The powerhouse of a cell is mitochondrion
565. The following medicine is obtained from the bark of cinchona Quinine
566. which one of the following is not a plant product? Rubber
567. Which of the following is inpotant element of chlorophyll? Magnesium
568. Grasses have fibrous roots
569. Primary producers are green plants
570. The five kingdom concept was proposed by Whittaker

571. "callus'' is referred as undifferentiated mass of tissues
572. Number of chromosomes in an organism is maintained by the following division. meiosis
573. Vascular cryptogams are pteridophytes
574. The raw materials used in the fermentation activity, in yeasts is (are) sugars and fruit juices
575. Artificial silk is prepared from synthetic fibres
576. The plant involved in sericulture is mulberry
577. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Vessel –translocation of sugar
578. Which one of the following is called as " maiden hair fern''? Adiantum
579. A plant cel is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of cell wall
580. The sporophyte develops from zygote
581.Geotropis can be demonstrated using clinostat
582. Who introduces binomial nomenclature? Linnaeus
583. Which one of the following is a complex tissue? Xylem
584. Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man? Barley
585. Transport of food materials in dicot plant is through Phloem
586. In India, the Research Institute in palaeobotany Lucknow
587. Distinction between plant and animal cells lies in respiration
588. The powerhouse of the cell is Mitochondria
589. Which part of the cauliflower is used as vegetable? Inflorescence
590. Which of the following is not found in plants? Vitamin B12
591. Insectilvorous plants capture insects for obtaining Nitrogen

Application Form for CSIR JRF December 2010 Notification Apply Online

CSIR JRF NET December 2010 Notification - Application Forms/Apply Online

COUNCIL OF SCIENTIFIC AND INDUSTRIAL RESEARCH (CSIR)
HUMAN RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT GROUP, EXAMINATION UNIT
CSIR COMPLEX, LIBRARY AVENUE, PUSA, NEW DELHI-110012

NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST (NET)

Joint CSIR-UGC Test For Junior Research Fellowship And Eligibility for Lectureship – 19th December, 2010

Advertisement No.10-2(5)/2010 (ii) - E.U.II

NOTIFICATION for CSIR JRF December 2010

DATE OF EXAMINATION : 19.12.2010
DATE OF START OF SALE OF APPLICATION FORM THROUGH BANKS & ON-LINE SUBMISSION : 10.08.2010
(i)DATE OF CLOSE OF SALE OF APPLICATION FORM THROUGH BANKS & ONLINE DEPOSIT OF FEE : 30.08.2010
(ii) DATE OF CLOSE OF SUBMISSION OF ONLINE APPLICATIONS : 31.08.2010

IMPORTANT DATES for CSIR JRF December 2010
A. Date of Examination: 19.12.2010
B. Schedule for sale of Information Bulletin through Bank
(i) Start of sale of Information Bulletin 10.08.2010
(ii)Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by post only 25.08.2010
(iii)Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by cash at all branches/ stations 30.08.2010
C. Schedule for On-Line Application
(i)Start of On-Line Submission of Application Form and Fee deposit through Bank Challan 10.08.2010
(ii) Date of close of On-Line deposit of fee (at All stations) 30.08.2010
(iii) Date of close of On-Line submission of Applications (at All stations) 31.08.2010
D. Last date of receipt of completed application forms (including duly completed hard copy of on line application in the Examination Unit 03.09.2010
E. Last date of receipt of (both kind) Completed application forms (from remote areas) 09.09.2010
F. Last Date for receipt of written request for change of Examination Centre only on merit basis 30.09.2010
G. Publication of list of candidates registered for test on CSIR, HRDG website 08.11.2010
H. Last date for entertainment of any representation about non-registration for this test 15.11.2010
I. Start of dispatch of Admission Certificate to eligible candidates last week of November 2010
CSIR will hold the Joint CSIR-UGC Test on 19th December 2010 for determining the eligibility of the Indian National candidates for the award of Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) NET and for determining eligibility for appointment of Lecturers (NET) in certain subject areas falling under the faculty of Science. The award of Junior Research Fellowship (NET) to the successful eligible candidates will depend on their finding admission/placement in a university/ national laboratory/ institution of higher learning and research, as applicable.
1.1 A candidate may apply either for ‘JRF + Lectureship’ both or for ‘Lectureship (LS) only’ He/she may indicate his/her preference in the O.M.R Application Form/Online Application, as the case may be. CSIR may consider candidates applying for ‘JRF + LS’ for ‘Lectureship only” depending on number of fellowships available& performance in the test subject to the condition that they fulfill the laid down eligibility criterion . If a candidate is found to be over-age for JRF (NET) he/she will automatically be considered for Lectureship (NET) only.
1.2 Two separate merit lists, one comprising the candidates qualifying for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF - NET) and the second, of those candidates qualifying the Eligibility Test for Lectureship (NET), will be made on the basis of their performance in the above Test. Candidates qualifying for JRF (NET), will also be eligible for Lectureship (NET). The candidates qualifying for Lectureship will be eligible for recruitment as Lecturers as well as for JRF-ship in a Scheme/Project, if otherwise suitable as per the eligibility criteria of that Scheme/Project. However, they will not be eligible for Regular JRF-NET Fellowship. They will be eligible to pursue Ph.D. programme with or without any fellowship other than JRF-NET. Candidates qualifying for the award of JRF (NET) will receive fellowship either from CSIR or UGC as per their assignment or from the Schemes with which they may find association. The candidates declared eligible for Junior Research Fellowship under UGC scheme will be governed by UGC rules/regulations in this regard.
1.3 The final result of this test may be declared sometime in the month of April 2011 and fellowship to successful candidates could be awarded from 01.07. 2011.

2.1 SUBJECTS OF THE TEST

The Test will be held in the subjects as given under:
1. Chemical Sciences,
2. Earth Atmospheric Ocean and Planetary Sciences
3. Life Sciences
4. Mathematical Sciences
5. Physical Sciences

2.2 EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION for CSIR JRF December 2010

M.Sc. or Equivalent degree under the subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above, with minimum 55% marks for General & OBC candidates; 50% for SC/ST candidates, Physically and Visually Handicapped candidates and Ph.D. degree holders who had passed Master's degree prior to 19th September 1991.

A candidate can also apply for the Test under RA (Result Awaited) category, if he/she is appearing or has appeared in his/her final year (Last Semester where Semester system is there) of M.Sc. OR equivalent Degree Examination in subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above during the academic Session 2010-2011 . Such candidates will have to submit the attestation format (given at the reverse of the application form) duly certified by the Head of the Deptt./Institute over his/her signature and rubber stamp (with address and name) from where the candidate is appearing or has appeared in the final year(Last Semester where Semester system is there) M.Sc. or equivalent degree examination. However, such candidates shall be admitted to the Test provisionally. They shall only be considered eligible for JRF-(NET)/LS-(NET), if they are able to produce the proof of having passed the Master’s Degree examination in the relevant or related subject with the requisite percentage of marks and within the stipulated time frame.

2.3 AGE LIMIT& RELAXATION

For JRF (NET): Minimum 19 Years and maximum 28 years as on 01-07-2010 (upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years as in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC(Non Creamy Layer), Physically handicapped/Visually handicapped and female applicants). For LS (NET): Minimum 19 years, as on 01.07.2010. No upper age limit.

3. DATE AND SCHEME OF THE TEST

3.1 The Test will be held in two sessions on Sunday, the 19th December 2010. The scheme of Examination as under: -

Paper Marks Timings Duration
I 200 10.00AM-12.30PM 2-1/2 hrs
II 200 2.00PM-4.30PM 2-1/2 hrs

Negative marking will be made for wrong answers in Paper I. Paper II will be evaluated only in case of those candidates who will be able to secure a minimum of such aggregate marks in Paper- I as may be fixed by the CSIR.

Candidates are required to appear in both the papers. A candidate who does not appear in Paper I will not be permitted to appear in Paper II.

The Test Booklet for this test will be printed in Hindi & English Version separately. The candidate opting for Hindi medium in Column No. 5 of Application Form, will be supplied Question Booklet/Test Booklet printed in Hindi Version only and Candidate opting for English medium, will be supplied Question Booklet/Test Booklet printed in English Version only. The candidate will be required to answer as per option exercised in Column No.5 of application Form.

3.2 SYLLABUS for CSIR JRF December 2010

Syllabus of Paper I (Section A), subject-wise syllabus of Paper I (Section B) and Paper II is given in the Information Bulletin for this test and may also be seen at CSIR website: www.csirhrdg.res.in

4. EXAMINATION CENTRES

The test will be held at 25 Centres spread all over India, as specified below:

Bangalore, Bhavnagar, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cochin, Delhi, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Imphal, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Karaikudi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Nagpur, Pilani, Pune, Raipur Roorkee, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur and Varanasi.

A candidate may opt for any of the above centres. No request for change of centre would ordinarily be granted. However, a request in writing for change of Centre may be entertained on merits, if received in this unit latest by 30.09.2010.

5. HOW TO APPLY for CSIR JRF December 2010:

5.1. OPTION-I : APPLY THROUGH ‘INFORMATION BULLETIN’:

5.1.1. BY HAND:

Candidates applying for the Test may obtain the Information Bulletin and Application forms (inclusive of fee payable) through the branches of the Bank notified below in para 5.2 (within the prescribed dates) by paying the following fee in cash:

Sr.No. – CATEGORY - FEES

1. General Rs. 400/-
2. Other Backward Classes(OBC) (Non Creamy Layer) Rs. 200/-

3. SC/ST/Physically Handicapped (PH) or Visually Handicapped (VH) Rs. 100/-

5.1.2. BY POST:

The information Bulletin and Application form may also be obtained through Value Payable Post(V.P.P.) from the Indian Bank, 3/1, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi - 110 008, by sending a crossed Demand draft for Rs. 400/-, Rs. 200/- or Rs.100/-(as the case may be) drawn in favour of “Indian Bank, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi” payable at New Delhi. For this purpose, the candidate should send a request to the Bank with TWO self-addressed slips clearly mentioning the address at which he/she desires the Information Bulletin & Application Form to be sent by Value Payable Post (V.P.P.) As above mentioned Bank will entertain the request for forms through post from Tuesday, the 10th August, 2010 to Wednesday, the 25th August, 2010 only, hence, candidates are advised to send their request well in advance so as to reach their request within the above said period. The candidate should write his/her name, Date Of Birth, address, date of Examination (19.12.2010) and subject code on the back of the Demand Draft so that it can be located easily, if it gets detached accidentally from the letter of request for supply of Information Bulletin. However, before attaching the draft with letter of request, the candidates should check that it bears the code number of the issuing bank and drawee bank and also amount and signatures of issuing authority.

5.2. OPTION-II : APPLY THROUGH ONLINE APPLICATION:

Interested & eligible candidates may apply for this test Online through a link available at CSIR, HRDG website : www.csirhrdg.res.in
In order to apply Online the candidates are required to download Bank challan Performa from the above website and then deposit the requisite examination fee in any of the Indian Bank branches through out the country. The examination fee for the Online application is same as mentioned in Para-5.1.1 above. Candidates after successfully submitting application online are required to take print out of the Application Form, paste his/her recent black & white photograph, put his/her signature at the required space, attach requisite certificates and send alongwith CSIR marked copy of fee deposited Bank Challan in an envelop to Sr. Controller of Examinations, Human Resource Development Group, Examination Unit, CSIR Complex, Library Avenue, Pusa, New Delhi-110012 so as to reach on or before 03.09.2010 (09.09.2010 for remote areas).

Online applications with out hard copy or bank challan receipt or incomplete in any respect will be summarily rejected. Before applying Online, candidates are advised to go through detailed notification available at CSIR, HRDG website.

Examination fee paid along with the Information Bulletin or through Bank Challan for a particular examination will neither be adjusted for any subsequent examination nor refunded under any circumstances. Similarly, candidates should also check all the column of Bank Challan, online application, which are to be filled in properly to avoid cancellation of application, Please note that Fee submitted any other mode like money order, demand draft, IPO etc. will be summarily rejected.

5.3. CANDIDATE SEEKING FEE CONCESSION

The candidate should attach an attested copy of the his/her category certificate as a proof of his/her claim. An application form (either through Bank or online), claiming any concession in fee & education qualification but without an attested copy of a valid SC/ST/OBC(Non Creamy Layer)/PH/VHcertificate from a competent authority and in prescribed format, will be summarily rejected.

Candidate must note that CSIR follows only Central Govt. lists and not state Govt. lists. Similarly, candidate applying under physically handicapped (PH)/ visually handicapped (VH) category may note that Govt. of India rules will be applicable in this regard.

5.4. LIST OF DESIGNATED BRANCHES FROM WHERE THE INFORMATION BULLETIN AND APPLICATION FORMS MAY BE OBTAINED BY HAND.

(a) INDIAN BANK

ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLANDS: 1) 22, First Floor Babu Lane, Aberdeen Bazaar, Port Blair.
ANDHRA PRADESH: 1) 6-3-852, Red Cortege Ameerpet, Begumpet, Hyderabad 2) D.No.26-2-36 Andhra Ratna Road, Gandhinagar, Vijaywada 3) Kothapet Guntur 4) 40-301, Bhagya Nagar, Bellary Road, Kurnool 5) Sai Viswanatha Shopping Complex, 16/157 Trunk Road, Nellore 6) 5-2-993/1,First Floor, Nizamshahi Road, Osmangunj, Hyderabad 7) 201, Karan Centre, Sarojini Devi Road, Secunderabad 8) 293, Gandhi Road, Tirupathi 9) Sivalayam Street, Krishna Dist., Vijaywada 10) 30-15-136/A Lorven Plaza, Block No:42, Allipuram Ward, Daba Gardens, Viskhapatnam 11) No. 14-2-153, J.P.N.Road, Mandi Bazaar , Warangal
ASSAM: 1) R N C Path, Dibrugah 2) S S Road, Fancy Bazaar, Guwahati 3) Assam Trunk Road, Jorhat
BIHAR & JHARKHAND: 1) 4, Patal Babu Road, Bhagalpur 2) Golpathar Thakur Bari, Gaya 3) Main Road Bistupur, Singhbhum Dist. Jamshedpur 4) West Gandhi Maidan, Patna 5) Sainik Bhavan, Main Road, Ranchi 6) C/7, City Centre Sector IV, Bokaro Steel City
DELHI 1) 309, Main Road, Chandni Chowk, Delhi 2) 13, Community Centre, Zamrudpur, Greater Kailash – I, New Delhi 3) 106 & 107, Aurobindo Place, D D A Commercial Complex, Hauz Khas, New Delhi 4) C - 26/27 Community Centre, Janakpuri, New Delhi 5) 13/36, Arya Samaj Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi 6) 1376, Lothian Road, Kashmere Gate, Delhi 7) 33, Pratap Nagar, Mayur Vihar Phase – I, Patparganj, Delhi 8) Main G-41, Connaught Circus, New Delhi 9) 47-48, Pragati House, Nehru Place, New Delhi 10) D-1/1, Rana Pratap Bagh, New Delhi 11) A B 20, Safdarjung Development Enclave, New Delhi 12) A 7, NDSE Part I, Main Ring Road, South Extension, New Delhi 13) 3/1, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi 14) Aggarwal Tarun Plaza, DDA Shopping Centre, Tarun Enclave, Pitampura, Delhi 15) Aggarwal Mall, I Floor Plot No.3, Sector V, Ashirwad Chowk, Dwarka, New Delhi.
GOA 1) Station Road, Margao 2) Hotel Bardez Building, Coscar Corner, Mapusa 3) Dr. Domingo Roque De - Souza Road, Panaji
GUJRAT 1) Mission Road, Bhadra, Ahmedabad 2) Prof. Manekrao Road, Raopura, Baroda 3) Kantawala Dela Undivakhar, Bhavnagar 4) Kasi Vishwanath Road, Jamnagar 5) Ring Road, Belgium Tower, Surat 6) Block 316, Sector 16, Gandhi Nagar
HARYANA: 1) A-3/3, Nehru Ground, Faridabad 2) Gurdwara Road, Gurgoan 3) SCF 20 Red Square Market, Hissar 4) 574/2, Civil Road , Rohtak
HIMACHAL PRADESH: 1) 17, The Mall, Shimla JAMMU: 1) 56 A/B, Gandhi Nagar, Jammu (J&K)
KARNATAKA: 1) 35, Lady Curzon Road, Bangalore Cantonment 2) 7, Gandhi Bazaar, Basavangudi, Bangalore 3) Goldsmith Street Brucepet, Bellary 4) No 7 , 4th Main Road, Chamarajpet, Bangalore 5) Mangala Shopping Complex, Touching Sangama Talikes Compound Line Bazaar Road, Dharwar 6) 57/4-9, R.S. Plaza, I floor, Vinoba Road, Gandhi Square, Mysore 7) 110, M G Road Bangalore 8) B H Road, Shimoga
KERALA: 1) 29/373F, Ground Floor, Ray Bhavan, NH 47 Byepass Thykoodam, VYTTILA ,Kochi 2) M C Road Baker Junction, Kottayam 3) C 34, S M Street, Kozhikode 4) Swaraj Round East, Thrissur 5) Indian Bank Towers M G Road, Thiruvananthapuram MADHYA PRADESH: 1) 83, M P Nagar, Zone II, Bhopal 2) 752, Iderganj Square Lashkar, Gwalior 3) G-1, Shree Vardhan Complex 4, R N T Marg, Indore 4) 426, Marhataal, Jabalpur
CHATISGARH: 1) Gurunanak Chowk, Raipur
MAHARASHTRA: 1) "Parasmani" 228, Samarth Nagar, Aurangabad 2) United India Bldg. Sir P M Road Fort, Mumbai 3) Gotmare Market, Laxmi Bhuwan Square Dharampeth, Nagpur 4) 480 Y, Swami R P Road, Nasik 5) 210 Mittal Towers, B Wing, Nariman Point, Mumbai 6) 495, Mantri Heights, Shaniwar Peth, Pune City 7) 129, Sterling Centre 11, Moledina Road, Pune Cantonment, Pune 8) Bakle Complex, 162/6, Railway Lines, Sholapur MEGHALAYA: 1) G S Road, Burra Bazaar, Shillong, East Khasi Hills, Shillong
ORISSA: 1) 32, Janpath Ashok Nagar Unit II, Bhubaneswar 2) 1140, Main Road, Rourkela, Sundargarh Dist. Rourkela 3) Laxmi Talkies Road, Sambalpur
PONDICHERRY: 1) 288, M G Road, Pondicherry
PUNJAB: 1) 42, Chowk Farid Katra Sher Singh, Amritsar 2) 922 G T Road, Jalandhar 3) Near A C Market Adalat Bazaar, Patiala.
CHANDIGARH: 1) SCO 38-39 Madhya Marg, Sector 7 C, Chandigarh
RAJASTHAN: 1) Alakh Sagar, KEM Road, Bikaner 2) "Dharma Heights" 10 Motilal Atal Road, Opp.Ganpati Plaza, M.I. Road, Jaipur 3) 4th Chopasni Road , Jodhpur 4) MP A8 Mahavir Nagar II, Kota 5)182, Outside Delhi Gate, Udaipur
SIKKIM: 1) Mahatma Gandhi Marg, New Market, Gangtok
TAMIL NADU: 1) Gee Gee Complex, First Floor 42, Anna Salai, Chennai 2) 31 Variety Hall Road, Coimbatore Main 3) 21, Koviloor Road, Karaikudi 4) 100, East Avani Moola St. Madurai Main 5) 128, Big Bazaar St. Tiruchirapalli Main 6) 5-J, Madurai Road, Tirunelveli Junction
UTTAR PRADESH: 1) E-11/8, I floor, Prateek Centre, Sanjay Place, Agra 2) Marris Road, Aligarh 3) 249, Chak Zero Road, Allahabad 4) 152-E, Civil Lines Chowki Chauraha, Bareilly 5) 3, Navyug Market, Ghaziabad 6) Bank Road, Gorakhpur 7) 50/276 Halsi Road, Kanpur 8) 64, Cant. Board office Kanpur Cantt. 9) 1-2, Ashok Marg, Lucknow 10) B-1316, Sai Plaza B Block Crossing, Indira Nagar, Lucknow 11) 213, Begum Bridge Road, Meerut 12) C-7/34-B, Lahurabir, Varanasi 13) D-48/122, Missirpokhra, Godowlia, Varanasi
UTTRANCHAL: 1) 3, Astely Hall Rajpur Road, Dehradun
WEST BENGAL: 1) 150, B C Road, Burdwan 2) 3/1, R N Mukherjee Road, Shree Ram Chambers, Kolkata Main 3) Bajaj Bhawan, Nachan Road, Benachitty, Durgapur 4) Malancha Main Road, Kharida, Kharagpur, Midnapore Dist. Kharagpur 5) Hill Craft Road, Siliguri, Darjeeling Dist. Siliguri 6) West Bengal Uni. Of Technology, BF-142, Salt Lake Sector 1, Salt Lake, Kolkata 7) Akash Ganga Commercial Complex, I floor, Block E, Basudebpur, Durga Chowk P.O., Khanjanchak, Haldia 8) 9/118, Rabindra Avenue, Khudiram Shaw Complex, 1st Floor, Opp. Zilla School, Malda.
(b) ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE
ORRISA: 1) Mallikashpur, Opp. To Faquir Mohan College, Balasore, Orrisa-756001
MAHARASHTRA: 1) Patel Plaza Housing Society, M.G.Road, Jalgoan, Maharashtra-425001
JAMMU & KASHMIR: 1) Poloview Residency Road, Srinagar-190001.
6. Candidates seeking admission to the Test must apply in the prescribed application form supplied along with the Information Bulletin for this test only. Please handle this form carefully while filling up. The completed application should be sent only Under Certificate of Posting (U.P.C). in the prescribed envelope supplied with Information Bulletin.
Candidate should check that the Serial number printed on the Information Bulletin, Application form, Certificate of Postage card and on the envelope are the same. The application form should be filled-in by the candidate legibly and carefully, in his/her own handwriting with Black INK pen. Candidate should super-scribe the SUBJECT CODE, APPLICATION FORM NO., Medium of Exam and CENTRE CODE in the boxes provided on the envelope containing the application form (with enclosures).

7. THE LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION FORM for CSIR JRF December 2010:

The application form (through Bank or online), duly completed with requisite enclosures should be sent Under Certificate of Posting (U.P.C) to the Sr. Controller of Examinations, Examination Unit, Human Resource Development Group, CSIR Complex, Opposite Institute of Hotel Management, Library Avenue, Pusa, New Delhi 110012 so as to reach Examination Unit CSIR on or before 03.09.2010.
For candidates applying from Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Ladakh Division of J&K State, Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshdweep, the application form must reach the Controller of Examination CSIR on or before 09.09.2010.
The candidates are advised in their own interest to apply early enough to ensure timely receipt of their applications by the Examination Unit on or before the closing date.

APPLICATION FORM RECEIVED AFTER CLOSING DATE WILL BE SUMMERILY REJECTED.

9. OTHER GENERAL INFORMATION for CSIR JRF December 2010:

(i) The candidates are advised to go through this notification and also terms & conditions given in Information Bulletin for this test. The candidate must satisfy themselves regarding their eligibility for this test before applying for this test.
(ii) Candidates must read the terms and conditions for CSIR /UGC Research Fellowships on the respective websites.
(iii) Candidates applying through O.M.R. Application form must use only the form supplied with Information Bulletin and purchased from any of the designated branches of the Bank listed in para 5.4 above. They should ensure that while selling the form, the bank has authenticated the form at reverse of the application form in space provided for this purpose. Application Form should be purchased from designated branches only and not from any other agency.
(iv) Candidates should follow the instruction for filling the O.M.R. Application. The duly completed application form must be sent under U.P.C. and dispatched early enough to ensure timely receipt of their applications by the Examination Unit on or before the closing date. The Certificate of Postage’ (proof of dispatch) may be preserved as acknowledgement.
(v) Candidate desirous of applying Online for this test will be required to deposit fee through Bank challan in any branch of Indian Bank and then apply at CSIR, HRDG website. After successfully submitting the application, candidates are required to take a printout on A4 size paper, affix photograph at designated space & sign across it, get endorsed by the HOD (for RA category only) and send it alongwith copy of Bank challan and other requisite enclosures, if any.
(vi) Candidates applying through Online application must note that mode of payment of fee is Bank challan from Indian Bank only. Fee submitted through any other mode viz.IPO,/demand draft/money order/ CRF stamp etc will not be accepted. Incomplete application or application submitted in any other format will be summarily rejected and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
(vii) The eligible candidates, in their own interest, are advised to keep Certificate of Postage and photocopy of both sides of the completed Application Form and three identical copies of the passport size photographs which has been affixed on the Application Form.
(viii) Candidates willing to apply through online application should see detailed notification and Instruction for applying online at our website www.csirhrdg.res.in and apply early enough to avoid any last minute rush.
(ix) Candidates should ensure that the signatures appended by them in all the places viz. In their application form,
Attendance Sheet etc. and in all the correspondence with the CSIR, should be identical and there should be no variation of any kind.
(x) Any change in address of correspondence should be promptly brought to the notice of Examination Unit within the prescribed period i.e. by 30.09.2010.
(xi) The Center and date of the Test are liable to be changed at the discretion of CSIR. No TA/DA will be paid to the

8. IMPORTANT POINTS for CSIR JRF December 2010:

1. While applying for this test, please ensure that you fulfill all the eligibility conditions and follow all the laid down procedures/guidelines for this test.
2. Purchase the Information Bulletin from the designated Bank branches early enough to avoid any last minute rush.
3. While applying Online, apply early enough to avoid any last minute rush
4. Ensure that completed application Hard Copy (in case of Online application) must reach to this office within stipulated last date for receipt.
5. List of candidates registered for this will be made available on our website tentatively on 8th November, 2010. The candidates must refer to our website for checking their registration in time & for having update from time to time.
6. Admission Certificates to all the registered candidates will be dispatched three weeks before the test, if any candidate does not receive the same by 10th December, 2010, he/she must download duplicate Admission Certificate from our website. CSIR will not be responsible for any delay/non-receipt of the Admission certificate. 7. The Test Booklet for this test will be printed in Hindi & English Version separately. The candidate opting for Hindi medium in Column No. 5 of Application Form, will be supplied Question Booklet/Test Booklet printed in Hindi Version only and Candidate opting for English medium, will be supplied Question Booklet/Test Booklet printed in English Version only. The candidate will be required to answer as per option exercised in Column No.5 of application Form. 8. For applying under “RA” category, the candidate should either has appeared or is appearing in Final year(Last Semmester, where semester is there) of M.Sc. or equivalent Degree Examination during the Session 2010-2011.
candidates by the CSIR.
(xii) Candidates should note that their candidature is strictly provisional till their joining. No candidate will be admitted to the Test unless he/she holds the admission Certificate to the Test. The mere fact that an Admission Certificate has been issued to a candidate will not imply that the Council has finally accepted his/her
candidature.
(xiii) The candidate may please note candidates declared successful will be required to submit a copy of their Admit Card, matriculation certificate/mark sheet, M.Sc. or its equivalent degree certificate/mark sheet to Sr. Controller of Examinations, Examination Unit, Human Resource Development Group, CSIR Complex, Opposite Institute of Hotel Management, Library Avenue, Pusa, New Delhi 110012. No separate intimation letter will be issued to successful candidate.
(xiv) Candidates may note that the verification of essential eligibility conditions of a candidate with reference to the documents as may be called for, will be taken up only by the Lecturer appointing/JRF awarding authorities after the candidate has qualified in the Test. The candidate should note that their candidature is strictly provisional till their joining.
(xv) Candidates may please note that all communications to CSIR should invariably contain the following particulars, failing which no response is possible:
(a) Name of the candidate (in full and in BLOCK LETTERS)
(b) Application form No.
(c) Subject
(d) Medium of Exam
(e) Centre for Examination
(Please note that no correspondence will be entertained for any matter for which last date has been expired.)
(xvi) In all matters the decision of the CSIR as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the
Test or his/her subsequent qualifying in the Test shall be final.
(xvii) Any attempt on the part of a candidate to obtain support for his / her candidature by any means may disqualify him/her for admission to the examination.
(xviii) A candidate who is found of guilty of impersonation or of submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tempered with or of making statements which are incorrect or false or of suppressing material information or otherwise resorting to any other irregular or improper means for obtaining admission to the examination, or of using or attempting to use unfair means or of misbehavior in the examination hall, may, in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution:

(a) Be debarred by the CSIR from this test and future tests also.
(b) Will be liable
CSIR JRF NET December 2010 Notification | JRF NET Application Forms/Apply Online