CSIR & GATE Question papers

CSIR NET JRF Dec 2011 Answer key for Life Sciences

2011-12-21T07:19:00.000-08:00

CSIR NET JRF December 2011 Question Paper
Here Download the CSIR NET JRF December 2011 Question Paper question paper. Soon answer for this question will be upload with in few days.

According to students this time CSIR Life science NET questions was easy compared to last time and Part A was easy but Part B was little tough and Part C was bitconfusing than tough.

Here the answer for
Download CSIR NET JRF December 2011

Answer Key CSIR NET 2011 December

2011-12-19T07:06:00.000-08:00

Here is link to Download the CSIR NET JRF December 2011 Question Paper question paper. Soon answer for this question will be upload with in few days.

CSIR NET JRF December 2011 Question Paper

Here is the answer Key for Set-B of CSIR JRF/NET December exam 2011

Solved CSIR Life sciece cell biology questions Part 1

2011-11-29T10:48:00.000-08:00

51. During anaphase II
(a) homologues separate and migrate towards opposite poles.
(b) sister chromatids separate and migrate towards opposite poles.
(c) nuclei reform.
(d) chromosomes line up in a single file.

52. During anaphase I
(a) homologues separate and migrate towards opposite poles.
(b) sister chromatids separate and migrate towards opposite poles.
(c) nuclei reform.
(d) chromosomes line up in a single file.

53. Cytokinesis is the
(a) exchange of homologous regions of nonsister chromatids.
(b) formation of tetrads.
(c) independent assortment of chromosomes.
(d) division of one cell into two

54. Centrioles separate during
(a) cytokinesis.
(b) prophase I and prophase II
(c) metaphase I and metaphase II.
(d) anaphase I and anaphase II.

55. Crossing over occurs during
(a) cytokinesis. (b) metaphase I.
(c) prophase II. (d) prophase I

56. Regions where nonsister chromatids cross are called
(a) inversions. (b) homologues.
(c) tetrads (d) chiasmata.

57. In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. Independent assortment has
the possibility of producing _____ different gametes.
(a) 232 (b) 8 million
(c) 223 (d) 24

58. Crossing over is
(a) the movement of genetic material from one chromosome to a nonhomologous
chromosome.
(b) independent assortment of chromosomes.
(c) the formation of chiasmata.
(d) the exchange of homologous portions of nonsister chromatids.

59. Variation occurs when chromosomes are shuffled in _____ and fertilization.
(a) mitosis (b) genetic drift
(c) meiosis (d) mutation

60. Heritable variation is required for
(a) meiosis. (b) mitosis.
(c) evolution. (d) asexual reproduction.

Check Your Answers

Solved CSIR Life sciece cell biology questions Part 2

2011-11-29T10:47:00.000-08:00

61. An antigen is
(a) a protein molecule that helps defend the body against disease.
(b) a type of white blood cell.
(c) an invading virus or bacterium.
(d) a foreign molecule that evokes a specific response by a lymphocyte.

62. How do memory cells differ from effector cells?
(a) Memory cells are more numerous.
(b) Memory cells are responsible for the primary immune response.
(c) Memory cells attack invaders; effector cells do not.
(d) Memory cells live longer.

63. Following tissue damage or the entry of microorganisms, an inflammatory response
may be initiated by
(a) the accumulation of phagocytes in an injured area.
(b) the release of interferon by infected cells.
(c) an increased blood flow in an infected or injured area.
(d) the release of chemicals such as histamine by damaged cells.

64. Which of the following could be considered a nonspecific defense?
(a) Intact skin creates a barrier that cannot normally be penetrated by bacteria or
viruses.
(b) Secretions from sebaceous and sweat glands give the skin an acidic pH that
prevents bacterial colonization.
(c) Tears, saliva, and mucous secretions contain lysozome, an enzyme that digests
the bacterial cell wall.
(d) all of the above

65. During a secondary immune response
(a) selected B generate antibody-producing effector B cells called plasma cells.
(b) the stricken individual may become ill.
(c) about 10 to 17 days are required from exposure to maximum effector response.
(d) the generation of effector cells begins with memory cells produced during the
primary immune response.

66. Most individuals infected with HIV
(a) can live for 15 to 20 years.
(b) never develop AIDS.
(c) die from autoimmune reactions.
(d) die from other infections or cancer.

67. Tissues are typed before an organ transplant to make sure that the _____ of donor
and recipient match as closely as possible.
(a) T cells
(b) antibodies
(c) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins
(d) histamines

68. A vaccine contains
(a) white blood cells that fight infection.
(b) antibodies that recognize invading microbes.
(c) inactivated disease-causing microbes.
(d) a hormone that boosts immunity.

69. When you are immune to a disease,
(a) antibodies against the disease are constantly circulating in your blood.
(b) certain lymphocytes are able to make the proper antibodies quickly.
(c) your nonspecific defenses are strengthened.
(d) B cells are stimulated to quickly engulf invaders.

70. In a series of immune system experiments, the thymus glands were removed from
baby mice. Which of the following would you predict as a likely result?
(a) The mice suffered from numerous allergies.
(b) The mice never developed cancerous tumors.
(c) The mice suffered from autoimmune diseases.
(d) The mice readily accepted tissue transplants.

Check Your Answers

Solved CSIR Life sciece cell biology questions Part 3

2011-11-29T10:46:00.000-08:00

71. The body produces antibodies complementary to foreign antigens. The process by
which the body comes up with the correct antibodies to a given disease is most like
(a) going to a tailor and having a suit made to fit you.
(b) ordering the lunch special at a restaurant without looking at the menu.
(c) going to a shoe store and trying on shoes until you find a pair that fits.
(d) selecting a lottery prize-winner by means of a random drawing.

72. The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are formed from the molecule’s
variable regions. Why are these regions called variable?
(a) They can change their shapes on command to fit different antigens.
(b) They change their shapes when they bind to an antigen.
(c) They can be different shapes on different antibody molecules.
(d) Their sizes vary considerably from one antibody to another.

73. The biggest difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity is
(a) how long their protection lasts.
(b) whether a subsequent secondary immune response can occur.
(c) whether clonal selection occurs.
(d) how they respond to and dispose of invaders.

74. Viruses and bacteria in body fluids are attacked by
(a) antibodies from B cells. (b) cytotoxic T cells.
(c) complement proteins. (d) helper T cells.

75. What do the antibodies secreted by plasma cells (the effector cells of humoral
immunity) do to attack their targets?
(a) activate complement to punch holes in them
(b) clump cells together so that phagocytes can ingest them
(c) cause antigen molecules to settle out of solution
(d) all of the above

76. Tissue macrophages
(a) begin their lives as neutrophils.
(b) have short life spans because they self-destruct after engulfing foreign invaders.
(c) originate from monocytes that leave the circulation and enter the tissues.
(d) are most effective against parasites.

77. The idea behind vaccination is to induce _____ without the vaccinated individual
having to get sick.
(a) passive immunity
(b) the primary immune response
(c) anaphylactic shock
(d) nonspecific defenses

78. A group of researchers have tested many chemicals and found several that have
potential for use in modifying the action of the immune system. Which of the following
would seem to have the most promise as a drug for inhibiting transplant rejection?
(a) Compound A13: acts like histamine
(b) Compound Q6: suppresses cytotoxic T cells
(c) Compound N98: a potent allergen
(d) Compound M31: stimulates helper T cells

79. Collagens:
(a) are high in glycine, hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
(b) are the most abundant proteins in vertebrates
(c) are the most abundant component of the extracellular matrix in animals
(d) all of the above

80. The ECM of animals cells consists of what three classes of molecules?
(a) protein-polysaccharides, structural proteins, microtubules
(b) structural proteins, lipid bilayers, adhesive glycoproteins.
(c) lipoproteins, polysaccharides, and adhesive glycoproteins.
(d) structural proteins, protein-polysaccharides, adhesive glycoproteins

Check Your Answers

Solved CSIR Life sciece cell biology questions Part 4

2011-11-29T10:44:00.000-08:00

81. Procollagen consists of _______ and is formed in the lumen of the:
(a) 2 b sheets, lysosomes
(b) 3 b sheets, E R
(c) 3 a chains, Golgi
(d) 3 a chains, E R

82. The flexibility of the lungs is due mainly to:
(a) laminins (c) elastins
(b) collagens (d) fibronectins

83. A difference between collagen and elastin is that:
(a) elastin has hydroxylysines and collagen does not
(b) collagen does not have hydroxylated proline residues
(c) there are over 15 types of elastins and less than 5 types of collagens
(d) elastin molecules are crosslinked by covalent bonds between lysine residues,
and collagen is not

84. Which is the correct order from least to most complex?
(a) Glucuronate, hyaluronate, proteoglycans, GAG
(b) Hyaluronate, glucuronate, GAG chains, proteoglycans
(c) GAG chains, hyaluronate, glucuronate, proteoglycans
(d) Glucuronate, hyaluronate, GAG chains, proteoglycans

85. Two of the most common adhesive glycoproteins in the ECM are:
(a) laminins and elastins
(b) collagens and elastins
(c) fibronectins and laminins
(d) collagens and fibronectins

86. Fibronectins have an effect on:
(a) blood clotting (b) cell shape
(c) cell movement (d) all of the above

87. The most abundant glycoproteins in the basal lamina are ______
(a) collagens (b) entactin
(c) laminins (d) fibronectins

88. The most abundant protein in human body is-
(a) Collagen (b) Fibronectin
(c) Globin (d) albumin

89. Roles of the glycocalyx include:
(a) cell adhesion (b) cell recognition
(c) creation of permeability barriers (d) all of the above

90. A red blood cell has just been targeted for destruction. This cell:
(a) has an increase in sialic acid groups.
(b) has a decrease in sialic acid groups
(c) has exposed galactose residues
(d) B and C

Check Your Answers

Solved CSIR Life sciece cell biology questions Part 5

2011-11-29T10:43:00.000-08:00

91. The three most common cell junctions in animals are:
(a) adhesive junctions, tight junctions, gap junctions
(b) adhesive junctions, tight junctions, plasmodesmata
(c) tight junctions, plasmodesmata, adhesive junctions
(d) gap junctions, tight junctions, plasmodesmata

92. The reason urine does not seep out of the bladder is due to the role of:
(a) adherens junctions (b) hemidesmosomes
(c) gap junctions (d) tight junctions

93. Desmosomes and hemidesmosomes are anchored in the cytoplasm by:
(a) desmocollins (c) actin fibers
(b) collagen (d) tonofilaments

94. Gap junctions consist of channels formed by:
(a) hydrophilic, connexons (b) hydrophobic, cadherins
(c) hydrophobic, connexons (d) hydrophilic, cadherins

95. A plant cell wall includes all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) hemicellulose (b) extensins
(c) cellulose (d) collagen

96. Which of the following would be most likely to lead to cancer?
(a) hyperactivity of both a proto-oncogene and a tumor-suppressor
(b) amplification of a proto-oncogene and the failure of a tumor-suppressor gene
(c) hyperactivity of bith a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene
(d) failure of a proto-oncogene to produce a protein and amplification of tumor
suppressor gene

97. The characteristic strength of woody tissues is due to:
(a) the secondary cell wall (b) hemicellulose
(c) the middle lamina (d) the primary cell wall

98. The rule is derived from the ER and is continuous with the ER of two adjacent plant
cells.
(a) middle lamina (b) annulus
(c) plasmodesma (d) desmotubule

99. One can estimate the length of M phase by knowing:
(a) the S phase (c) the age of the cell
(b) the mitotic index (d) the generation time

100. What is true of proto-oncogenes?
(a) cells produce proto-oncogenes as a by-product of mitosis
(b) proto-oncogenes are necessary for normal control of cell division
(c) proto-oncogenes are genetic junk that has not yet been eliminated by natural
selection
(d) proto-oncogenes are unavoidable environmental carcinogens.

Check Your Answers

Life Science CSIR NET JRF - Cell Biology questions - Part - 1

2011-11-27T08:38:00.000-08:00

1. Which of the following is not a function of mitotic cell division in
(a) repair of damaged organs (b) production of gametes
(c) asexual reproduction (d) growth

2. Which of the following would not be considered part of a cell’s cytoplasm?
(a) a ribosome (b) the nucleus
(c) a mitochondrion (d) a microtubule

3. It is difficult to observe individual chromosomes with a light microscope during interphase because:
(a) they have uncoiled to form long, thin strands
(b) they leave the nucleus and are dispersed to other parts of the cell
(c) the DNA has not been replicated yet
(d) the spindle must move them to the metaphase plate before they become

4. The maximum size of a cell is limited by
(a) its need for enough surface area for exchange with its environment.
(b) the number of organelles that can be packed inside.
(c) the materials needed to build it.
(d) the amount of flexibility it needs to be able to move.

5. You would expect a cell with an extensive Golgi apparatus to
(a) make a lot of ATP. (b) secrete a lot of material.
(c) move actively. (d) perform photosynthesis.

6. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?
(a) mitochondrion . . . photosynthesis
(b) nucleus . . . cellular respiration
(c) ribosome . . . manufacture of lipids
(d) central vacuole . . . storage

7. Mitochondria and cholorplasts share several common features, for example,
(a) both are capable of semiautonomous growth and reproduction.
(b) neither are components of the endomembrane system.
(c) each contains a small amount of DNA
(d) all of the above.

8. In muscle cells the ____ is specialized for the storage and release of calcium.
(a) smooth ER (b) the Golgi apparatus
(c) contractile vacuoles (d) rough ER

9. Of the following organelles, which group is involved in manufacturing substances needed by the cell?
(a) lysosome, vacuole, ribosome
(b) ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER
(c) vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER
(d) smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole

10. The internal skeleton of a cell is composed of
(a) microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments.
(b) cellulose and intermediate filaments.
(c) cellulose, microtubules, and centrioles.
(d) microfilaments.

Check Your Answer

Life Science CSIR NET JRF - Cell Biology questions - Part - 2

2011-11-27T08:37:00.000-08:00

11. Cells will usually divide if they receive the proper signal at a
(a) M (b) S
(c) G2 (d) G1

12. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a
(a) tight junction. (b) microtubule.
(c) desmosome. (d) plasmodesma.

13. A researcher made an interesting observation about a protein made by the rough ER and eventually used to build a cell’s plasma membrane. The protein in the membrane was actually slightly different from the protein made in the ER. The protein was
probably changed in the
(a) Golgi apparatus. (b) smooth ER.
(c) mitochondrion. (d) nucleus.

14. When elongated, tube-shaped cells from the lining of the intestine are treated with a certain chemical, the cells sag and become round blobs. The internal structures disrupted by this chemical are probably
(a) cell junctions. (b) microtubules.
(c) rough ER. (d) dynein.

15. The electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because
(a) electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls.
(b) bacteria are so small.
(c) bacteria move so quickly they are hard to photograph.
(d) with few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in individual
macromolecules.

16. Cell fractionation is the most appropriate procedure for preparing ____ for study.
(a) isolated cells which are normally found tightly attached to neighbouring cells
(b) cells without a functional cytoskeleton
(c) isolated organelles
(d) the basic macromolecules

17. Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
(a) the presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
(b) whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membranes
(c) the presence or absence of ribosomes
(d) whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism

18. Seema would like to film the movement of chromosomes during cell division. Her best choice for a microscope would be a
(a) transmission electron microscope, because of its magnifying power.
(b) scanning electron microscope, because the specimen is alive.
(c) transmission electron microscope, because of its great resolving power.
(d) light microscope, because the specimen is alive.

19. A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides, the parts from which DNA is built. Later examination of the cell showed the radioactivity to be concentrated in the
(a) rough ER. (b) peroxisome.
(c) nucleus. (d) central vacuole.

20. When isolated liver cells are combined with nonpolar toxins initial processing in the ___ increases the solubility of these compounds as an initial step in their excretion.
(a) smooth ER (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) mitochondrion (d) rough ER

Check Your Answer

Life Science CSIR NET JRF - Cell Biology questions - Part - 3

2011-11-27T08:36:00.000-08:00

21. Discontinuous segments of DNA are joined by:
(a) telomerase (b) DNA ligase
(c) exonuclease (d) DNA polymerase

22. The concentration of calcium in a cell is 0.3%. The concentration of calcium in the surrounding fluid is 0.1%. How could the cell obtain more calcium?
(a) passive transport (b) diffusion
(c) active transport (d) osmosis

23. Phospholipid molecules in a membrane are arranged with their ____ on the exterior and their ____ on the interior.
(a) hydrophobic heads . . . hydrophilic tails
(b) hydrophilic heads . . . hydrophobic tails
(c) nonpolar heads . . . polar tails
(d) hydrophobic tails . . . hydrophilic heads

24. Sister chromatids:
(a) are created when DNA is replicated
(b) are separated during mitosis
(c) are attached at the centromere prior to division
(d) all of the above

25. Which of the following correctly matches a phase of the cell cycle
(a) S, immediately precedes cell division (b) M, duplication of DNA
(c) G1, immediately follows cell division (d) G2, cell division

26. The kinetochores:
(a) are the primary centromere structures that maintain the attachment
(b) attach to the ring of actin along the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane
(c) move along spindle microtubules during anaphase, dragging
(d) are located at the center of the centromere their function is to provide attachment
site to spindle fibre

27. A biochemist measured the amount of DNA to be doubled during the cells in growing stages
(a) between prophase and anaphase
(b) between anaphase and telophase
(c) during the M phase of the cell cycle
(d) between the G1 and G2 phases

28. DNA damaged by sunlight:
(a) has undergone depurination (b) has lost its phosphate groups
(c) has formed pyrimidine dimers (d) has lost its hydrogen bonds

29. Which of the following functional processes results from the presence of protein within the plasma membrane?
(a) enzymatic activity (b) signal transduction
(c) intercellular joining (d) all of the above

30. Select the correct statement concerning membrane carbohydrate.
(a) Carbohydrates are only found associated with the membranes of prokaryotic cells.
(b) Glucose is the most abundant membrane carbohydrate.
(c) Cell membranes consist of protein and phospholipid; carbohydrate is not a membrane component.
(d) membrane carbohydrates function primarily in cell-cell recognition.

Check Your Answer

Life Science CSIR NET JRF - Cell Biology questions - Part - 4

2011-11-27T08:35:00.000-08:00

31. Imagine two solutions separated by a selectively permeable membrane which allows water to pass, but not sucrose or glucose. The membrane separates a 0.2 M sucrose solution from a 0.2 glucose solution. With time how will the solutions change?

(a) Nothing happens because the two solutions are isotonic to one another.
(b) Water enters the sucrose solution because the sucrose molecule is a disaccharide, and is larger than the monosaccharide glucose.
(c) Water leaves the sucrose solution because the sucrose molecule is a disaccharide, and is larger than the monosaccharide glucose.
(d) The sucrose solution is hypertonic and will gain water because the total mass of sucrose is greater than that of glucose.

32. During cytokinesis in plants:
(a) a bundle of actin microfilaments called the contractile ring, pinch the cell in half
(b) small vesicles, directed by the phragmoplast, move to the spindle
(c) a cleavage furrow encircles the cell
(d) cytoplasmic division is called cleavage

33. Progression through the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by:
(a) microtubules (b) the p53 gene
(c) cyclin-dependent kinases (d) DNA ligase

34. The result of the operation of an electrogenic pump would be
(a) an electrochemical gradient on the cell membrane
(b) a resting potential across the membrane
(c) plasmolysis
(d) a cell with a positively charged interior

35. A plant cell is placed in a solution whose solute concentration is twice as great as the concentration of the cell cytoplasm. The cell membrane is selectively permeable, allowing water but not the solutes to pass through. What will happen to the cell?
(a) No change will occur because it is a plant cell.
(b) The cell will shrivel because of osmosis.
(c) The cell will swell because of osmosis.
(d) The cell will shrivel because of active transport of water.

36. One consequence of the sidedness of the plasma membrane is that
(a) molecules that begin on the inside face of the ER end up on the inside face of the plasma membrane
(b) the asymmetrical distribution for membrane proteins, lipids, and carbohydrate must be determined when the membrane is first constructed
(c) some proteins on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane are attached to the cytoskeleton
(d) the inside of an ER vesicle is topographical equivalent to the extra cellular surface of the plasma membrane

37. The p53 gene:
(a) is the most frequently mutated gene in human cancer
(b) can lead to cell cycle arrest at the G1 checkpoint
(c) can trigger apoptosis.
(d) all of the above

38. During the Ras pathway:
(a) cytoplasmic protein kinases are activated
(b) the growth factor receptor is dephosphorylated
(c) growth factors bind to receptors in the cytoplasm
(d) leads to the production of translation factors

39. If a DNA molecule has a deaminated base, it will be repaired by:
(a) by excision repair pathways
(b) with the help of repair endonucleases
(c) by base excision repair
(d) with the help of DNA glycosylases

40. A benign tumor is one in which the cancerous cells:
(a) have an unusual number of chromosomes
(b) can divide indefinitely if an adequate supply of nutrients is available
(c) migrate from the initial site of transformation to other organs or
(d) remain confined to their original site

Check Your Answer

Life Science CSIR NET JRF - Cell Biology questions - Part - 5

2011-11-27T08:32:00.000-08:00

41. A DNA molecule is a polymer made of subunits called
(a) bases. (b) amino acids.
(c) nucleotides. (d) nucleic acids.

42. A human somatic cell contains _____ chromosomes.
(a) 23 (b) 47
(c) 2n (d) 46

43. Which of the following is a normal human female?
(a) X Y (b) X X Y
(c) X X (d) X

44. A karyotype would be least likely to show which of the following?
(a) an extra chromosome
(b) part of a chromosome duplicated
(d) a missing chromosome
(d) part of a chromosome turned around

45. The diploid stage of a plant that exhibits an alternation of generation is the
(a) antheridium. (b) gametophyte.
(c) spore. (d) sporophyte.

46. DNA replication occurs
(a) whenever a cell makes protein.
(b) to repair gene damage caused by mutation.
(c) before a cell divides.
(d) whenever a cell needs RNA.

47. Mitosis and cytokinesis result in the formation of ______; meiosis and cytokinesis result in the formation of ________.
(a) 4 diploid cells; 4 haploid cells
(b) 2 diploid cells; 2 haploid cells
(c) 2 diploid cells; 4 haploid cells
(d) 2 diploid cells; 2 diploid cells.

48. Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
(a) Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
(b) Chromosomes condense.
(c) Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.
(d) synapsis

49. At the end of telophase I and cytokinesis there are
(a) 4 haploid cells. (b) 2 diploid cells.
(c) 1 haploid ovum and 3 polar bodies. (d) 2 haploid cells.

50. Synapsis occurs during
(a) anaphase I. (b) prophase I.
(c) cytokinesis. (d) prophase II.

Check Your Answer

CSIR Life science - Cell Biology Model Questions Part - 10

2011-11-23T13:37:00.000-08:00

91. Polyclonal antibodies are-
(a) Clones against single antigen by many B-cells
(b) Clones against single antigen by single B-cells
(c) Clones against many antigen by single B-cells
(d) Clones against many antigen by many B-cells

92. Lymphokines that recruit the macrophages for Phagocytosis are secreted by-
(a) T-cells (b) B-cells
(c) Complement system (d) MHC

93. Liposomes are-
(a) Lipid filled bags (b) Artificial membranes
(c) Liver Fat bodies (d) Eukaryotic organelle

94. Which among the following act as bridge between cell mediated and humoral immunity-
(a) T-cytoxic cells (b) T-suppressor cells
(c) B-cells (d) T-helper cells

95. In humans cell recognition molecules are-
(a) HLA (b) B-cells
(c) T-Cells (d) Immunoglobins

96. Cancers cell are monoclonal, are characterized by uncontrolled growth, invasion of other tissues and dissemination to other tissues. The phenomenon of invasion to other tissues is termed as-
(a) Angiobiogenesis (b) Metastasis
(c) Diapedesis (d) Transformation

97. A major protease secreted by cancer cells acts on plasminogen and converts it into plasmin. Plasmin is proteolytic enzyme that dissolves blood clots and also removes exposed protein groups at cell surface. If the plasminogen is removed form the medium, then-
(a) The morphology of cancer cells returns to normal.
(b) The cancer cell will show more exponential growth.
(c) Cancer cell will die
(d) No change will be seen

98. One of the major higher molecular weight glycoprotein component which can be easily isolated from normal cultured fibroblast by mild treatment of urea, also occur at “foot prints” that moving culture cells leaves, is totally absent in cancerous cell is-
(a) Fibronectin (b) Albumin
(c) Ferritin (d) Transferin

99. The sex determination in drossophila is based on-
(a) X-Chromosome (b) Y chromosome
(c) Autosome (d) Both a & c

100. Environmental control of sex determination is seen in-
(a) Melandrium (b) Drosophila
(c) Bonelia (d) Apes indica

Check Your Answer

CSIR Life science - Cell Biology Model Questions Part - 9

2011-11-23T13:36:00.000-08:00

81. After the damage of body tissues, blood vessel is dilated where damage has occurred, due to which permeability of blood vessel also increases. Vasodilation is caused by-
(a) Histamine (b) Kinin
(c) Prostaglandin (d) All of above

82. The process of sneezing of phagocytes between the endothelial cells of blood vessels and reaching to damaged area is known as-
(a) Margination (b) Metastasis
(c) Diapedesis (d) Angiobiosis

83. In humans interferon is produced by leucocytes, fibroblasts in connective tissue and lymphocytes and are termed as a-IFN, b-IFN and g-INF resp. The interferons are-
(a) Antibacterial proteins (b) Antiviral Protein
(c) Anti cancerous protein (d) Anticancer protein

84. During embryonic stage of human B-lymphocytes are produced in-
(a) Bone marrow (b) Spleen
(c) Liver (d) Bursa

85. Haptens are –
(a) Immunogenic antigen
(b) Non Immunogenic Antigen
(c) High molecular weight non immunogenic antigen
(d) Low molecular weight immunogenic antigen

86. Lysosomes are polymorphous organelles containing vast array of hydrolytic enzymes which can digest any foreign material only at pH-
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 9 (d) 7

87. Number of antigen functional binding site in human Immunoglobin-M are-
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) 20

88. Number of amino acids in light and heavy chain of typical immunoglobin are
respectively-
(a) 110, 220 (b) 220, 440
(c) 440, 880 (d) 880, 1760

89. Among the following which is not essential property of immunoglobin-
(a) Memory (b) Specificity
(c) Diversity (d) Reactivity

90. Spectrin of erythrocytes and cytochrome c of mitochondria, which can be easily dissociated by high ionic strength and metal ion chelating agent are example of-
(a) Extrinsic Protein (b) Intrinsic protein
(c) Tunnel Protein (d) Cytoplasmic Protein

Check Your Answer

CSIR Life science - Cell Biology Model Questions Part - 8

2011-11-23T13:35:00.000-08:00

71. To convert a nucleoside to a nucleotide, it would be necessary to:
(a) remove the pentose from the nucleoside (b) add phosphate to the nucleoside
(c) replace purine with pyrimidine (d) replace ribose with deoxyribose

72. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Nucleotides are to _______________ as _______________ are to proteins.
(a) amino acids; polypeptides (b) genes; enzymes
(c) nucleic acids; amino acids (d) polymers, polypeptides

73. Post translation modification of secretary proteins occurs in:
(a) RER (b) SER
(c) Mitocondria (d) nucleus

74. Most cells cannot harness heat in order to perform work because
(a) heat is not a form of energy
(b) Cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool
(c) heat denatures enzymes
(d) temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell

75. Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence; Catabolism is to anabolism as ––––––––– is to ––––––––––.
(a) exergonic ; spontaneous (b) free energy ; entropy
(c) exergonic ; endergonic (d) work ; energy

76. According to the first law of thermodynamics
(a) matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
(b) all processes increase the order of the universe.
(c) systems rich in energy are intrinsically stable
(d) energy is conserved in all processes

77. How you can separate Gram + ve bacteria from Gram –ve bacteria-
(a) Presence of Techoic Acid (b) Absence of periplasmic Space
(c) Exotoxin Produced (d) All of the above

78. The main Phagocytotic cell in immune response is-
(a) Neutrophils (b) Basophils
(c) Monocytes (d) Lymphocytes

79. The phagocytes are attracted toward microorganisms by-
(a) Chemotaxis (b) Rheotaxis
(c) Diapedesis (d) Thogmotaxis

80. The cell wall of microorganisms is coated with certain plasma protein promoting the attachment of microbe to phagocytes, only then they can be phagocytosised. The coat protein are called as-
(a) Globins (b) Opsonins
(c) Ovulbumins (d) Phagosonins

Check Your Answer

CSIR Life science - Cell Biology Model Questions Part - 7

2011-11-23T13:32:00.000-08:00

61. Which of the following is an example of a hydrophobic material?
(a) Paper (b) Sugar
(c) Pasta (d) Wax

62. We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
(a) weight in daltons
(b) number of molecules
(c) volume
(d) number of atoms

63. Among the following which is longest cell-
(a) Hemp (b) Ramie
(c) Jute (d) Nerve fibre

64. The middle lamella of plant cells is made up of calcium magnesium pectate. Pectic Acid is polymer of-
(a) a-1,4 D-Glucose (b) b-1,6-D Glucose
(c) a-1,4 D-Galactouronic acid (d) b-1,4 D-Galactouronic acid

65. Acid precipitation has lowered the pH of a particular lake to 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake
(a) 10–4 M (b) 4.0 M
(c) 10–10 M (d) 104 M

66. The percentage amount of Integral protein of plasma membrane is-
(a) 40 % (b) 50 %
(c) 60 % (d) 70 %

67. Oligosaccharide are usely attached to extrinsic phase of plasma membrane by-
(a) Proteins (b) Lipids
(c) Both a & b (d) Not specific

68. Maximum number of enzymes in a eukaryotic cell is present inside
(a) Cytosol (b) Mitocondria
(c) Lysosome (d) ER

69. Which of the following term includes all others in the list?
(a) Monosaccharide (b) Carbohydrate
(c) Disaccharide (d) Starch

70. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bond is the
(a) secondary level (b) tertiary level
(c) primary level (d) quaternary level

Check Your Answer

CSIR Life science - Cell Biology Model Questions Part - 6

2011-11-23T13:30:00.000-08:00

51. If a fragment of a chromosome breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called
(a) a deletion. (b) an inversion.
(c) a translocation. (d) a nondisjunction.

52. Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16?
(a) There are probably more genes on chromosome 21 than on the others.
(b) Chromosome 21 is a sex chromosome and 3 and 16 are not.
(c) Down syndrome is not more common, just more serious.
(d) Extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal.

53. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while our closest relatives, chimpanzees, have 24. Chromosome studies indicate that at some point early in human evolution, two chromosomes simultaneously broke into a large portion and a small portion. The large parts combined to form a large chromosome, and the small parts combined to form a much smaller chromosome (which was subsequently lost). This important chromosomal change could best be described as
(a) nondisjunction followed by deletion.
(b) translocation followed by deletion.
(c) duplication followed by deletion.
(d) translocation followed by inversion.

54. Each cell in an individual with Down syndrome contains ____ chromosomes.
(a) 3 (b) 22
(c) 24 (d) 47

55. Disorders involving unusual numbers of sex chromosomes show that maleness is caused by the
(a) presence of an X chromosome.
(b) presence of a Y chromosome.
(c) absence of an X chromosome.
(d) absence of a Y chromosome.

56. A particular allele can have different effects if it was inherited from a male rather than a female. This phenomenon is known as
(a) extranuclear inheritance. (b) aneuploidy.
(c) sex-linkage. (d) genome imprinting.

57. Human mitochondria
(a) are inherited as an X-linked trait.
(b) are all inherited from the father.
(c) have linear DNA.
(d) are all inherited from the mother.

58. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
(a) are found within the nucleus.
(b) have linear DNA.
(c) carry extranuclear genes.
(d) are inherited from both parents.

59. Damaged DNA is excised by
(a) restriction enzymes. (b) helicase.
(c) primase. (d) DNA polymerase.

60. Unlike prokaryotic DNA replication, eukaryotic DNA replication
(a) is completed by DNA polymerase.
(b) cannot be completed by DNA polymerase.
(c) is semiconservative.
(d) has a multiple origin.

Check Your Answer

CSIR JRF NET Biodiversity MCQs Questions Part - 1

2011-11-20T09:58:00.001-08:00

1. Different groups of seaweeds can generally be distinguished on the basis of
(a) color.
(b) size.
(c) whether they have true leaves, stems, and roots.
(d) whether they are autotrophic or heterotrophic.

2. Which of the following are protozoans?
(a) diatoms, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
(b) apicomplexans, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
(c) amoebas, actinomycetes, ciliates, and flagellates
(d) flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria, and apicomplexans
3. In general, how do algae and protozoans differ?
(a) Protozoans can move, and algae cannot.
(b) Algae are free-living, and protozoans are parasitic.
(c) Protozoans are autotrophic, and algae are heterotrophic.
(d) Algae are photosynthetic, and almost all protozoans are heterotrophic.
4. Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists, even though most other protists are microscopic unicellular creatures. Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be considered plants, not protists. Which of the following would support the latter position?
(a) Certain seaweeds contain several kinds of specialized cells.
(b) Certain seaweeds undergo sexual and asexual reproduction.
(c) Certain seaweeds are found to be prokaryotic.
(d) Certain seaweeds have very complex cells.
5. Protozoans called choanoflagellates live in small clusters. They look very much like choanocytes, special feeding cells found in sponges, which are simple animals. Why might biologists find choanoflagellates of great evolutionary interest?
(a) They show how the very first organisms might have lived.
(b) They might show how the first heterotrophs lived.
(c) offer hint about origin of multicellular organism
(d) They suggest what the first eukaryotes might have been like.
6. Which of the following is not evidence for the role of endosymbiosis in the origin of eukaryotes?
(a) Chloroplasts have their own DNA.
(b) The inner membrane of a chloroplast is similar to prokaryotic membranes.
(c) Mitochondria and chloroplast both are surrounded by two membranes.
(d) The DNA in the eukaryotic nucleus codes for some enzymes in mitochondria
7. Protists are a diverse group of organisms that include
(a) plants. (b) algae.
(c) protozoans. (d) b and c
8. Among the following which statement is NOT a part of principles of current code adopted by XII International Botanical Congress in Leningrad (1975).
(a) Botanical nomenclature is independent of Zoological nomenclature
(b) The application of names is determined by means of nomenclature types
(c) The nomenclature of taxonomic group is based upon priority of publication
(d) Scientific names of taxonomic group are treated as Italics regardless of their derivation.
9. Different hybrid forms of the same parentage are designated as-
(a) Apomicts (b) Nothomorphs
(c) Race (d) Variety
10. According to current code for Botanical Nomenclature, the names of class must ends with-
(a) –opsida (b) –idae
(c) –ales (d) –aceae
Check Your Answer

CSIR JRF NET Biodiversity MCQs Questions Part - 2

2011-11-20T09:57:00.001-08:00

11. A specimen or element selected by a competent worker form the original material studied by the author to serve as a substitute for the holotype if the latter was not designated in the original publication or is lost or destroyed-
(a) Lectotype (b) Neotype
(c) Isotype (d) Paratype

12. Which technique is routinely used among plants for establishing genetic relationship-
(a) Amino acid sequence (b) Serological investigation
(c) Iso-enzyme profiling (d) Chromosome morphology
13. Numerical taxonomy is also referred as –
(a) Statistical taxonomy (b) Phenetics
(c) Computer aided taxonomy (d) All
14. Which is NOT a characteristic of numerical taxonomy-
(a) The greater the content of information in taxa of classification and the more character on which it is based, the better is classification
(b) Every character is of equal weight in creating natural taxa.
(c) Classification is based on percentage (%) similarity coefficient for each OTU.
(d) Phylogenetic inferences cannot be made form the taxonomic structure of a group and from character correlation.
15. Which technique is not utilized during DNA profiling-
(a) Restriction digestion (b) Electrophoresis
(c) Southern blotting (d) RFLP
16. For DNA fingerprinting the region of DNA used for study are the non-coding regions
of chromosome known as-
(a) VNTR (b) RFLP
(c) RAPD (d) All
17. Which is major factor contributing to loss of biodiversity?
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) Introduced species
(c) Over exploitation of Plants and Animals
(d) Industrial agriculture and forestry
18. An International treaty designated to protect wildlife from being threatened by international trade was set up in 1975, it is known as-
(a) WTO (b) IUCN
(c) CITES (d) FAO
19. The diploid generation of the plant life cycle always
(a) produces spores.
(b) is called the gametophyte
(c) is larger and more conspicuous than the haploid stage
(d) develops from a spore
20. The diploid sporophyte stage is dominant in the life cycles of all of the following except
(a) a pine tree (b) a dandelion.
(c) a rose bush (d) a moss

Check Your Answer

CSIR JRF NET Biodiversity MCQs Questions Part - 3

2011-11-20T09:56:00.000-08:00

21. Land plants arose during the
(a) Ordovician (b) Jurassic
(c) Cambrian (d) Carboniferous

22. Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they
(a) do not produce flowers (b) have cones but no seeds
(c) have flagellated sperm (d) lack vascular tissue
23. Deep in the tropical rain forest, a botanist discovered an unusual plant with highly developed vascular tissue, stomata, flagellated sperm, cone-like reproductive structures bearing seeds, and an alternation of generations life cycle. He was very excited about this discovery because it would be rather unusual for a plant to have both
(a) highly developed vascular tissue and flagellated sperm
(b) vascular tissue and alternation of generations
(c) seeds and flagellated sperm
(d) alternation of generations and seeds
24. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-
(a) UV-A (b) UV-B
(c) UV-A & B (d) UV-B & C
25. Besides nomenclature of plants in wild, ICBN also gives binomial names for-
(a) Bacteria & Fungus (b) Fungus
(c) Fungus & cultivated plants (d) Cultivated plant
26. __________ are not native to a particular area, and can upset the balance of the ecosystem.
(a) Exotic species (b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Decomposers (d) Reintroduction programs
27. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?
(a) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct
(b) A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the population’s numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years
(c) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered.An endangered species is already extinct
(d) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing
28. Which of these programs is used to preserve a species facing extinction?
(a) edge effects (b) sustainable use
(c) natural resources (d) captive breeding
29. What does this figure illustrate?
(a) habitat fragmentation
(b) biodiversity
(c) extinction
(d) edge effect
30. The maximum biodiversity in India occurs at-
(a) Western Himalayas (b) North East Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern Ghats

Check Your Answer

CSIR JRF NET Biodiversity MCQs Questions Part - 4

2011-11-20T09:55:00.000-08:00

31. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used?
(a) plantae (b) fungi
(c) protista (d) monera

32. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term
(a) Cryptogams (b) bryophytes
(c) sporophytes (d) thallophytes
33. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
(a) fern and Funaria (b) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
(c) Punica and Pinus (d) Funaria and Ficus
34. According to botanical nomenclature, which are not allowed-
(a) Synonyms (b) Antonyms
(c) Tautonyms (d) Isonyms
35. The original specimen submitted by author himself is termed as-
(a) Holotype (b) Paratype
(c) Lectoype (d) Isotype
36. Phenetic classification is based on
(a) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(b) observable characteristics of existing organisms
(c) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(d) sexual characteristics
37. Which of the following is Spermatophyte?
(a) Bryophyte (b) Pteridophyte
(c) Thallophyte (d) Gymnosperm
38. The National herbarium in our country is located in-
(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta
(c) Chennai (d) Delhi
39. All of the following are reasonable hypotheses for the high diversity observed in tropical rain forest except
(a) Habitat heterogeneity
(b) Climatic variability
(c) Niche specialization and resource partitioning
(d) Population interaction and coevolution
40. Research on the nothern spotted owl indicates that
(a) owl population will stabilize if an adequate number of immature forest source habitats can be preserved
(b) metapopulations must be more closely spaced to compensate for the owl’s limited flight capacity
(c) setting aside marginal habitat encourages dispersion of owls into areas where reproductive success is unlikely
(d) the current owl population is too small to disperse into source habitats
Check Your Answer

CSIR JRF NET Biodiversity MCQs Questions Part - 5

2011-11-20T09:52:00.000-08:00

41. A population of strictly monogamous swans consists of 40 males and 10 females. The effective population size for this population is
(a) 50 (b) 40
(c) 20 (d) 10

42. Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a metapopulation’s long-term survival?
(a) The population is not subdivided into subpropulations
(b) Regular and extensire movement of individuals among patches makes the subpopulations function essential as a single unit.
(c) Source and sinks all contain subpopulations
(d) All subpopulations are connected by corridors
43. The applications of ecological principles to return a degraded ecosystem to its natural state is characteristic of
(a) bioremediation
(b) restoration ecology
(c) landscape ecology
(d) conservation ecology
44. ––––––––––––– is the unit of evolution
(a) species (b) individual
(c) community (d) population
45. Not all species contribute equally to the integrity of an ecological community, with limited time and resources, it would be most reasonable to focus conservation efforts on
(a) the large vertebrates (b) keystone species
(c) primary producers (d) exotic species
46. Populations with low effective sizes are susceptible to all of the following problems except
(a) inbreeding
(b) genetic drift
(c) bottlenecking
(d) adaptive radiation
47. Which of the following errors would result in an underestimate of a specie’s MVP?
(a) underestimating the maximum age of reproduction
(b) underestimating the average birth rate
(c) overestimating the death rate
(d) overestimating the average fecundity
48. European zebra mussels, accidentally released into lake Erie in 1988, quickly displaced native mussel species. This threat to biodiversity is an example of
(a) Metapopulation expansion
(b) exotic introduction
(c) habitat fragmentation
(d) over exploitation
49. Which of these ecosystems has the lowest primary productivity per square meter?
(a) a salt marsh (b) an open sea
(c) a coral reef (d) a grassland
50. The part of chromosome used for DNA fingerprinting is-
(a) Microsatellite (b) Minisatellite
(c) Tandem satellite (d) Macrosatellite
Check Your Answer

CSIR Ecology MCQ questions Part - 5

2011-11-16T09:48:00.001-08:00

41. Ticks on cattle or cattle ergot feed on lice is an example of –
(a) Ammensalism (b) Commensalism
(c) Proto-cooperation (d) Mutualism

42. When mimic resembles a ferocious/ poisonous/distasteful organism for eg. Viceroy
butterfly mimics monarch butterfly is –
(a) Aggressive mimicry (b) Conscious mimicry
(c) Protective mimicry (d) All of these
43. Early successful stages are tolerant of the harsh, abiotic condition in barren areas
are characterized by-
(a) Weedy a-selected (b) Weedy r-selected
(c) Weedy g-selected (d) Weedy k-selected
44. As ecosystem matures more g-selected replace g-selected. During this species richness
and total biomass increase. Under such condition productivity-
(a) Also Increase (b) remains unchanged
(c) Decreased (d) Random increase
45. Limitating factor in temperate and boreal forest is-
(a) Nutrients (b) Frost
(c) Oxygen (d) Sunlight
46. Limitating factor for plant growth in steppes and desert is-
(a) Nutrients (b) Water
(c) Oxygen (d) Sunlight
47. No succession is seen in Savannah grasslands –
(a) Regular fires (b) Paucity of Nutrients
(c) Low water availability (d) Low oxygen supply
48. Diversity between geographical areas within one overall large area-
(a) a- Diversity (b) b-diversity
(c) g- Diversity (d) m-diversity
49. The characteristic population growth curve of bacteria is-
(a) Straight (b) S shaped
(c) J shaped (d) Random
50. The maximum biodiversity will occur at-
(a) Poles (b) Deserts
(c) grasslands (d) Alpines
Check Your Answer

CSIR Ecology MCQ questions Part -4

2011-11-16T09:47:00.002-08:00

31. Among the following green house gases will absorb the light of wavelength-
(a) 200 nm (b) 300 nm
(c) 350 nm (d) 450 nm

32. The photochemical smog is produced by-
(a) Nitrogen oxides
(b) Hydrocarbons
(c) Nitrogen oxides & hydrocarbons
(d) Solar radiation on NOX & hydrocarbon
33. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is-
(a) SO2 (b) CO
(c) Methane (d) Flurocarbon
34. Those species whose populations have been seriously depleted and whose ultimately
security is not assured is known
(a) Threatened species (b) Endangered species
(c) Vulnerable species (d) Rare species
35. Wild life is destroyed most when-
(a) There is lack of proper care
(b) Mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(c) Its natural habitat is destroyed
(d) Natural calamity
36. Increased incidence of floods in plains of North India are due to-
(a) Increased deforestation in catchment areas
(b) Increase in incidence of rainfall
(c) Silting of dams
(d) More area under cultivation
37. The two major aspects of ecosystem are-structure and function. By function we mean-
(a) The rate of biological energy flow i.e., the rate of production of respiration of
community
(b) Biological or ecological regulation including both regulation of organisms by
environment and relation of environment by the organisms
(c) The composition of biological community including species, numbers, biomass
and life history
(d) None of the above
38. Micro consumers are popularly known as-
(a) Primary consumer (b) Secondary consumer
(c) Tertiary consumer (d) Decomposers
39. Moss bags, epiphytic lichens and mosses have used for monitoring-
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution
(c) Oil pollution (d) Land pollution
40. The maximum primary productivity is seen in-
(a) Grasslands (b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Deserts (d) Mangroves
Check Your Answer

CSIR Ecology MCQ questions Part -3

2011-11-16T09:47:00.001-08:00

21. Air pollutant gases causing acid rain are-
(a) CO2 & Cl2 (b) CO2 & O3
(c) SO2 & NOx (d) CFC & CO2

22. Plants that grows in saline water lodged habitat are called-
(a) Xerophytes (b) Halophytes
(c) Mangrooves (d) Mesophytes
23. Petro-crop plantation refers to-
(a) Establishing gobar gas plant
(b) Planting fast growing trees
(c) Planting hydrocarbon rich plants
(d) Recycling of waste
24. Which of the following is true climax according to monoclimax theory-
(a) Edaphic climax (c) Climatic climax
(b) Biotic climax (d) Physiographic climax
25. Ecotype is-
(a) Genetically different but phenotypically similar
(b) Genetically different but ecologically different individuals
(c) Genetically adapted ecological race
(d) Genetically & phenotypically dissimilar
26. Competition is the most severe between the two-
(a) Closely related species growing in different niche
(b) Closely related species growing in same habitat
(c) Distantly related species growing in same habitat
(d) Distantly related species growing in different niche
27. In ecological succession from pioneer to climax community, the biomass shall-
(a) Decrease (b) No relation
(c) Increase and then decrease (d) Increase continuously
28. Rate of storage of organic matter not used by heterotrophs is termed as-
(a) Net productivity (b) Net primary productivity
(c) Gross primary productivity (d) Secondary productivity
29. Abyssal zone in ocean has-
(a) No sunlight but contains decomposers and consumers
(b) No sunlight but contain producers
(c) Sunlight and decomposers
(d) Sunlight and producers
30. Climate of world is threatened by-
(a) Increasing amount of atmospheric O2
(b) Decreasing amount of atmospheric O2
(c) Increasing amount of atmospheric CO2
(d) Decreasing amount of atmospheric CO2
Check Your Answer

CSIR Ecology MCQ questions Part -2

2011-11-16T09:46:00.000-08:00

11. Among the following environmental pollutants has the problem of biomagnifications-
(a) SO2 (b) NO3
(c) Hg fungicides (d) O3 & CO2

12. An increase in the atmospheric level of automobile exhaust gases does not lead to-
(a) Pb Pollution (b) O3 Pollution
(c) Particulate air pollution (d) O3 Pollution
13. The compound mainly responsible for pollution which caused the ill famed Bhopal gas tragedy was-
(a) NH4OH (b) CH3NCO
(c) CH3NH2O (d) CHCl3
14. In recycling of mineral elements within an ecosystem, the responsible direct acing organism are called-
(a) Decomposers (b) Producers
(c) Primary consumers (d) Secondary consumers
15. Eutrophication of water bodies resulting to killing of fishes is mainly due to-
(a) Non-availability of food
(b) Non-availability of light
(c) Non-availability of oxygen
(d) Non-availability of essential minerals
16. The pyramid of biomass will be inverted in the ecosystem of-
(a) Forests (b) Ponds
(c) Grasslands (d) Drylands
17. Primary productivity at the climax stage of a succession is-
(a) Higher then consumption (b) Lower then the consumption
(c) Equal to consumption (d) Not related to consumption
18. UV radiations is injurious to plants because it-
(a) Break phosphate bonds (b) Increases respiration
(c) Causes dehydration (d) Causes genetic changes
19. The pyramid of number of a parasitic food chain in forest ecosystem is-
(a) Always inverted
(d) Always upright
(b) Mixture of inverted & upright
(c) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
20. The most stable ecosystem could be-
(a) Ponds (b) Oceans
(c) Desert (d) Forest
Check Your Answer

CSIR Ecology MCQ questions Part -1

2011-11-16T09:45:00.000-08:00

1. The best source of Vitamin C among the following:
(a) Lycopersicum esculentum (b) Cirus medica
(c) Capsicum annum (d) Phyllanthus emblica

2. Pollution of big cities can be controlled to large extent by-
(a) Wide roads and factories away from city
(b) Cleanliness drive and proper use of pesticides
(c) Proper sewage and proper exit of chemicals from factories
(d) All of the above
3. The Ecological pyramid that is always upright
(a) Pyramid of energy (b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of number (d) None of the above

4. “Green house effect” with respect to global warming refers to-
(a) Cooling & moist condition (b) Warming effect
(c) Increased rainfall & greenery (d) Desertification
5. In India, Tropical rain forest occurs in-
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Andaman & Nicobar
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh
6. Insectivorous plant generally grow in soil which is deficient in
(a) Water (b) Nitrogen
(c) Potassium (d) Calcium
7. Atomospheric ozone layer which protect us from UV-B & C is getting depleted most by addition of-
(a) Chloro flurocarbon (b) Carbon monooxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Sulpur dioxide

8. A high BOD value in aquatic environment is indicative of-
(a) A pollution free system
(b) A highly polluted system due to excess of nutrients
(c) A highly polluted system due to abundant heterotrophs
(d) A highly pure water with abundance of autotrophs

9. In which of the following the maximum plant diversity is found-
(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) Tropical moist deciduous forests
(c) Sub tropical mountain forests
(d) Temperate moist forests

10. A term biotype means-
(a) All individuals having same phenotype
(b) All individuals having same genotype
(c) All individual with different phenotype
(d) All individuals with different genotype

Check Your Answer

CSIR Evolutionary Biology Questions Part -1

2011-11-13T16:41:00.000-08:00

Evolutionary Biology Questions MCQ Questions and answers
1. The oldest microfossil so far of age 3.5 billion year ago was-
(a) Coacervates (b) Eobionts
(c) Microspheres (d) Cyanobacteria

2. In his book, “The origin of life (1938)” oparin submitted abiogenesis first bur biogenesis
ever since, this theory is named as-
(a) Spontaneous generation (b) Chemical origin
(c) Primary abiogenesis (d) Biogenesis
3. Experimental evidence for molecular evolution of life was provided by-
(a) Oparin (b) Haldane
(c) Urey and Miller (d) Syndey fox

4. During pre-biotic origin of life which chemical played important role in formation of nucleotide specially guanosine-
(a) CH4 (b) CO2
(c) NH3 (d) HCN
5. Among the following which molecule till now not synthesized by mimicking the environment of pre-biotic environment-
(a) Ribose (b) Pyrimidines
(c) Purine (d) L-aminoacids
6. Among the following the evidence of evolution from biogeography is-
(a) Embryo development (b) Plate tectonics
(c) Darwin finches (d) Darwin turtles

7. Thorns of Bougenwalia plant and tendril of cucurbits are-
(a) Homologous organs (b) Paralogous organ
(c) Analogous organ (d) Orthologous organ
8. Placental mammals such as mouse, wolf, Australian marsupials such as marsupial mouse, Tasmanian wolf shows-
(a) Parallel evolution (b) Convergent evolution
(c) Divergent evolution (d) Phyletic evolution

9. Which of the following is not an vestigial organ in humans-
(a) Ear muscles (b) Tail vertebra
(c) Premolar (d) Appendix

10. Which of the following was earliest form with lipid bilayer and can reproduce by budding-
(a) Coacervates (b) Micro spheres
(c) protobionts (d) Monospheres

Check Your Answer

CSIR Evolution MCQs Part - 2

2011-11-13T16:40:00.000-08:00

11. Biogenetic law of Von Baer & Earnst haekel is
(a) Phylogeny repeats ontogeny
(b) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(c) Ontogene repeats phytogene
(d) Ontogeny and phylogeny are cyclic

12. Evidence from fossils records are obtained by calculating age of fossil found in–
(a) Metamorphic rock (b) Sedimentary rocks
(c) Igneous rocks (d) Earth crust
13. Mammals originated during the period-
(a) Triassic (b) Jurassic
(c) Cretaceous (d) Permian
14. First plant having seed habit (Heterosporous Pterodophyte) originated during-
(a) Silurian (b) Devonian
(c) Carboniferous (d) Permian
15. First human appeared during-
(a) Oligocene (b) Miocene
(c) Pliocene (d) Pleistocene

16. Era of reptiles and gymnosperm is-
(a) Precambrian (b) Paleozoic
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cenozoic

17. The correct order of evolution of horse is-
(a) Mesohippus, Hyracotherium, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.
(b) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, Hyracotherium, pliohippus, equus.
(c) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, Hyracotherium, equus.
(d) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.

18. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis was refuted by-
(a) Recapitulation theory (b) theory of Germplasm
(c) Chromosome theory (d) theory of biogenesis

19. Mutation theory of Hugo de vries was put forward while working on-
(a) Drosophila (b) Ancon sheep
(c) Oenothera amarckiana (d) Antirrhinum

20. Evolution at genetic level is termed as-
(a) Microevolution (b) Macroevolution
(c) Gene Evolution (d) Point mutation
Check Your Answer

CSIR Evolution MCQs Part - 3

2011-11-13T16:39:00.000-08:00

21. Which of them do not cause variation at genetic level-
(a) Mutation and recombination
(b) Gene migration and drift
(c) Natural selection and artificial selection
(d) Panmictic population

22. The raw material for evolution is variability of gene or allele at/in-
(a) individual level (b) population
(c) gene pool (d) community
23. Founder effect is concerned with-
(a) Gene migration (b) Genetic drift
(c) Natural selection (d) Mutation

24. If the individual ar one extreme of the size distribution (eg., larger one ) contribute more offspring to next generation then such selection is called as-
(a) Directional
(b) Disruptive
(c) Cyclic
(d) Stabilizing
25. Examples of polymorphism in human is-
(a) ABO blood group (b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) height and Intelligence (d) All of the above

26. When the preservation of genetic variability is through heterozygote superiority it is termed as-
(a) Heteropolymorphism (b) Balanced polymorphism
(c) Stabilizing polymorphism (d) Directional polymorphism
27. Type of speciation due to polyploidy is-
(a) Allopathic (b) Parapatric
(c) Peripatric (d) Sympatric

28. When the two species are morphologically almost identical but reproductively isolated,are termed as-
(a) Taxonomic species (b) Ecotypes
(c) Sibling species (d) Morphospecies
29. Methanogens are found in-
(a) Marshy areas (b) Flora of cattle rumen
(c) Biogas fermentor (d) All such places
30. Each of us is part of the ongoing evolution of the human species. Which of the following occurrences would have the greatest impact on the future biological evolution of the human population?
(a) You work out every day so that you stay physically fit and healthy.
(b) A mutation occurs in one of your skin cells.
(c) You move to Hawaii, the state with the longest life expectancy.
(d) A mutation occurs in one of your sperm or egg cells.
Check Your Answer

CSIR Evolution MCQs Part - 4

2011-11-13T16:37:00.000-08:00

31. The processes of ____ and ____ generate variation, and____ produces adaptation to the environment.
(a) sexual recombination . . . natural selection . . . mutation
(b) mutation . . . sexual recombination . . . genetic drift
(c) genetic drift . . . mutation . . . sexual recombination
(d) mutation . . . sexual recombination . . . natural selection

32. Birds with average-sized wings survived a severe storm more successfully than other birds in the same population with longer or shorter wings. This illustrates
(a) the founder effect (b) stabilizing selection
(c) artificial selection (d) gene flow

33. Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in microevolution of a population of humans?
(a) Only random mating took place in all people that reproduced in North America
(b) A colony of humans on the moon was isolated from earth
(c) The incidence of skin cancer in adults over age 40 rose significantly
(d) Both a and c
34. Which of the following is the best example of gene flow.
(a) A polyploid plant develops
(b) Genes are shuffled by crossing over of chromosomes during meiosis
(c) An earthquake results in the formation of a canyon splitting a population of
toads apart
(d) Wind blows pollen from one population of plants to another and cross fertilization
occurs
35. Stabilizing selection
(a) favors intermediate variants in a population
(b) prevents mutations from occurring
(c) occurs when some individuals migrate to an area with different environmental
conditions
(d) can only take place in species exhibiting sexual dimorphism
36. According to the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the frequencies of alleles in a population would remain constant if ______________ is the only process that affects the gene pool.
(a) mutation (b) genetic drift
(c) sexual reproduction (d) microevolution
37. In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem p2 represents
(a) the total alleles in the gene pool
(b) the heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
(c) the homozygous recessives in the gene pool
(d) the homozygous dominants in the gene pool
38. In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, 1 represents
(a) The total alleles in the gene pool
(b) the heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
(c) the homozygous recessives in the gene pool
(d) all the possible phenotypes in the gene pool
39. Two animals are considered of different species if they
(a) look different (b) cannot interbreed
(c) live in different h (d) are geographically isolated
40. Which of the following is the first step in allopatric speciation?
(a) genetic drift (b) geographical isolation
(c) polyploidy (d) hybridization
Check Your Answer

CSIR Evolution MCQs Part - 5

2011-11-13T16:33:00.000-08:00

41. Most of the time, species are identified by their appearance. Why?
(a) If two organisms look alike, they must be the same species
(b) This is the criterion used to define a biological species
(c) If two organisms look different, they must be different species
(d) This is the most convenient way of identifying species

42. A new species can arise in a single generation
(a) through geographical isolation
(b) in a very large population that is spread over a large area
(c) if a change in chromosome number creates a reproductive barrier
(d) if allopatric speciation occurs
43. The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin’s finches, from a single ancestor is called
(a) adaptive radiation (b) sympatric speciation
(c) gradualism (d) nondisjunction

44. According to the _________ model, evolution occurs in spurts; species evolve relatively rapidly, then remain unchanged for long periods.
(a) nondisjunction (b) gradualist
(c) adaptive radiation (d) punctuated equilibrium

45. Sympatric speciation is
(a) the appearance of a new species in the same area as the parent population.
(b) initiated by the appearance of a geographical barrier
(c) the emergence of many species from a single ancestor
(d) especially important in the evolution of island species
46. In some animals eg. Axolatal larvae of Ambystoma, the larvae fails to undergo metamorphosis (iodine deficiency). It develops gonads, attains sexual maturity and start reproduction. This is called-
(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Neoteny or paedogenesis
(c) Retrogress metamorph (d) Stagnant metamorphosis
47. Darwin finches from various islands of Galapagos island differed in size and shape of bill due to-
(a) Mutation (b) Adaptive radiation
(c) Competition (d) Gene migration
48. The enzyme which is occurs in all eukaryotes and show great homology is-
(a) Cytochrome oxidase (b) Cytochrome c
(c) Cytochrome b (d) Cytochrome a

49. The hormone which is almost identical and occurs in all vertebrates is-
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine
(c) Glucagon (d) ACTH

50. The phylogenictically closed relative of humans are-
(a) Langurs (b) Apes
(c) Mokeys (d) Shrews
Check Your Answer

Previous year papers of Physics exam questions - 3

2011-11-11T10:26:00.001-08:00

22.	A body of moment of inertia of 3 kgm² rotating with an angular velocity of 2rad/s has the same kinetic energy as a mass of 12 kg moving with a velocity of (MHT-CET-1999) (a) 1 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 4 m/s (d) 8 m/s Answer: (a)
23.	If a gymnast, sitting on a rotating stool, with his arms outstretched, suddenly lowers his arms (NCERT 78) (a) The angular velocity decreases (b) His moment of inertia decreases (c) The angular velocity remains constant (d) The angular momentum increases Answer: (b)
24.	The moment of inertia of a thin circular disc of mass M and radius R about any diameter is (MHT-CET-1999) (a) (b) (c) MR² (d) 2MR² Answer: (a)
25.	A disc of radius R rotating about its axis has a moment of inertia I about that axis. When it is rotating about that axis at a constant angular velocity w a heavy particle of mass m is placed gently at the rim of the disc. The resulting angular velocity of the system is (CPMT 91) (a) w (b) Iw (I + mR) (c) (I + mR)/Iw (d) Iw/(I + mR²) Answer: (d)

Previous year papers of Physics exam questions - 2

2011-11-11T10:25:00.003-08:00

11.	The dimensions of angular momentum are – (MH-CET 2004) (a) [M¹ L² T^-¹] (b) [M¹ L¹ T^-¹] (c) [M¹ L¹ T^-²] (d) [M¹ L² T^-²] Answer: (a)
12.	A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 20 cm is free to rotate about its axis. It receives an angular impulse of 4 kg m²/s. what is the angular speed of the cylinder if the cylinder is initially at rest? (a) 20 rad/s (b) 15 rad/s (c) 10 rad/s (d) 5 rad/s Answer: (a)
13.	The moment of inertia of an electron in n^th orbit will be (MHT-CET-2001) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (a)
14.	The M.I. of a body does not depends upon (CPMT 75) (a) Angular velocity of a body (b) Axis of rotation of the body (c) The mass of the body (d) The distribution of the body Answer: (a)
15.	What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius R and density r about its diameter? (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
16.	M.I. of a thin uniform rod about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length is ML²/12. The rod is cut transversely into two halves, which are then riveted end to end. M.I. of the composite rod about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length will be (MHT-CET-2001) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
17.	The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 gm and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane is (MHT-CET-2000) (a) 0.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3.54 cm (d) 6.54 cm Answer: (c)
18.	A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with a constant angular velocity w two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring will now rotate with an angular velocity of (I.I.T. 83) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
19.	A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it reaches the bottom is (EAMCET 85, PEN 85 MP) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
20.	The position vector of a particle of mass 10 g, about the origin is If it moves with a linear velocity of m/s, then its angular momentum will be (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
21.	Moment of inertia depends upon the (MH-CET 2002) (a) Mass of the body (b) Distribution of mass of the body (c) Position of axis of rotation (d) All of these Answer: (d)

Previous year papers of Physics exam questions - 1

2011-11-11T10:25:00.001-08:00

1.	Centre of mass of two body system divides the distance between two bodies, is proportional to (MH-CET 2004) (a) Inverse of square of the mass (b) Inverse of mass (c) The ratio of the square of mass (d) The ratio of mass Answer: (b)
2.	A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with a constant angular velocity w₁. Two small bodies each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of ring. The new angular velocity w₂ of the ring will be (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
3.	A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc are released from the top of a frictionless inclined plane so that they slide down the inclined plane (without rolling). The maximum acceleration down the plane is (a) For the solid sphere (b) For the hollow sphere (c) For the disc (d) The same for all bodies Answer: (d)
4.	The kinetic energy of a body is 4 joule and its moment of inertia is 2 kg m² then angular momentum is (MHT-CET-2008) (a) 4 kg m²/sec (b) 5 kg m² /sec (c) 6 kg m²/sec (d) 7 kg m²/sec Answer: (a)
5.	Moment of inertia depends on (MHT-CET-2002) (a) Distribution of particles (b) Mass (c) Position of axis of rotation (d) All of these Answer: (d)
6.	A disc of moment of inertia 9.8/p² kg m² is rotating at 600 rpm. If the frequency of rotation charges from 600 rpm to 300 rpm, then what is the work done? (MHT-CET-2004) (a) 1470 J (b) 1452 J (c) 1567 J (d) 1632 J Answer: (a)
7.	A disc of mass 2 kg and diameter 2m is performing rotational motion. Find the work done, if the disc is rotating from 300 rpm to 600 rpm. (MH-CET 2004) (a) 1479 J (b) 14.79 J (c) 147.9 J (d) 1.479 Answer: (a)
8.	What will be distance of centre of mass of the disc (see fig.) from its geometrical centre? (MHT-CET-2001) (a) (b) R + r, to left (c) (d) Answer: (a)
9.	The moment of inertia of uniform circular disc about an axis passing its centre is 6kgm². its M.I. about an axis perpendicular to its plane and just touching the rim will be (a) 18 kg m² (b) 30 kg m² (c) 15 kg m² (d) 3 kg m² Answer: (a)
10.	A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping. Then the fraction of its total energy associated with rotation is (PMT, 87 MP) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)

Physics Objective type question bank -4

2011-11-11T10:20:00.003-08:00

1.	The torque acting is 2000 Nm with an angular acceleration of 2 rad/s². The moment of inertia of body is (MH-CET 2004) (a) 1200 kgm² (b) 900 kgm² (c) 1000 kgm² (d) Can’t say Answer: (c)
2.	By keeping moment of inertia of a body is constant, if we double the time period, then angular momentum of body – (MH-CET 2005) (a) Remains constant (b) Doubles (c) Becomes half (d) Quadruples Answer: (c)
3.	A disc of moment of inertia I₁ is rotating with angular velocity w₁ about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre. If another disc of moment of inertia I₂ about the same axis is gently placed over it, then the new angular velocity of the combined disc will be (a) (b) (c) w₁ (d) Answer: (b)
4.	The moment of inertia of a disc about a tangent axis in its plane is (MHT-CET-2002) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
5.	The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides. The distance between them (MHT-CET-2004) (a) Inverse into of square of masses of particle (b) Direct ratio of square of masses of particle (c) Inverse ratio of masses of particle (d) Direct ratio of masses of particle Answer: (c)
6.	A uniform disc of mass 2 kg is rotated about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc. If radius of gyration is 50 cm, then the M.I. of disc about same axis is (MHT-CET-2006) (a) 0.25 kg m² (b) 0.5 kg m² (c) 2 kg m² (d) 1 kg m² Answer: (b)
7.	A rod length is l density of material is D and area of cross section A. it is rotates about its axes perpendicular to the length passing through its centre then find its kinetic energy is (MHT-CET-2008) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (d)
8.	The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length l about an axis passing through one of its and perpendicular to length is. (PMT MP 95) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
9.	Constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes it angular momentum from A to 4 A in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque is (MP PMT 97) (a) (b) A (c) 4 A (d) 12 A Answer: (a)
10.	A spherical solid ball of a kg mass and radius 3 cm is rotating about an axis passing through its centre with an angular velocity of 50 radian/s. the kinetic energy of rotation is (CPMT 89) (a) 4500 J (b) 90 J (c) 910 J (d) Answer: (d)

Physics Objective type question bank -4

2011-11-11T10:20:00.001-08:00

1.	If I, a and t are the moment of inertia, angular acceleration and torque respectively of a body rotating about any axis with angular velocity w, then (CPMT 82) (a) t = Ia (b) t = Iw (c) I = tw (d) a = Iw Answer: (a)
2.	The moment of inertia of a circular ring about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane is 200 gm ´ cm². then its moment of inertia about a diameter is (PMT 87 MP) (a) 400 gm ´ cm² (b) 300 gm ´ cm² (c) 200 gm ´ cm² (d) 100 gm ´ cm² Answer: (d)
3.	Two particles A and B, initially at rest, moves towards each other under a mutual force of attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is u and the speed of B is 2 u, the speed of centre of mass is, (IIT 82) (a) Zero (b) u (c) 1.5 u (d) 3 u Answer: (a)
4.	A body of M.I. 3 kg m² rotating with an angular velocity 2 rad/s has the same K.E. as a mass of 12 kg moving with a velocity of (MH-CET 99) (a) 1 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 4 m/s (d) 8 m/s Answer: (a)
5.	Moment of inertia of a disc about the tangent parallel to its plane is I. The moment of inertia of the disc tangent and perpendicular to its plane is (MH-CET 2005) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (d)
6.	The moment of inertia of a disc about its geometrical axis is I. then its M.I. about its diameter will be (a) I (b) 2I (c) (d) Answer: (c)
7.	A particle moves for 20 s with velocity 3 m/s and then moves with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 s and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 s. what is the average velocity of the particle? (MHT-CET-2004) (a) 3 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) Zero Answer: (b)
8.	The term moment of momentum is called (C.P.M.T.74, MH-CET 99) (a) Momentum (b) Force (c) Torque (d) Angular momentum Answer: (d)
9.	When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point its angular momentum is directed along. (NCERT 82, MNR 87, MP 86) (a) The radius (b) The tangent to orbit (c) The line at an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation (d) The axis of rotation Answer: (d)
10.	A mass M is moving with a constant velocity parallel to the X-axis. Its angular momentum with respect to the origin (a) Is zero (b) Remains constant (c) Goes on increasing (d) Goes on decreasing Answer: (b)

Physics Objective type question bank -3

2011-11-11T10:18:00.000-08:00

1.	If a body is rotating about an axis, passing through its centre of mass then its angular momentum is directed along its (MNR 77, NCERT 82, PMT MP 86) (a) Radius (b) Tangent (c) Circumference (d) Axis of rotation Answer: (d)
2.	If a horizontal cylindrical tube, partly filled with water is rapidly rotated about a vertical axis passing through its centre, the moment of inertia of the water about its axis will (a) Decrease (b) Increase (c) Not change (d) Increase or decrease depending upon clock wise or anticlockwise sense of rotation Answer: (b)
3.	A sphere of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 1 m rolls without sliding with a constant velocity of5 m/s. what is the ratio of the rotational K.E. to the total kinetic energy of the sphere? (MHT-CET-2002) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
4.	represents (MHT-CET-2003) (a) Rotational kinetic energy of a particle (b) Potential energy of a particle (c) Torque on a particle (d) Power Answer: (a)
5.	The total energy of rolling ring of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ (MHT-CET-2007) (a) 3/2 mv² (b) 1/2 mv² (c) mv² (d) 5/2 mv² Answer: (c)

6	When a steady torque is acting on a body, the body (NCERT 73) (a) Continues in its state of rest or uniform motion along a straight line (b) Gets linear acceleration (c) Gets angular acceleration (d) Rotates at a constant speed Answer: (d)
7	The M.I. of a solid cylinder of mass M and radius R about a line parallel to the axis of the cylinder and ling on the surface of the cylinder is (MP-PMT 94) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
8	The moment of inertia of a body comes into play (AFMC (pune) 79) (a) In motion along a curved path (b) In linear motion (c) In rotational motion (d) None of the above Answer: (c)
9	The speed of a homogeneous, solid sphere after rolling down in the inclined plane of vertical height h, from rest without sliding is (CBSE 92) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (a)
10	Two disc with same mass but different radii are moving with same K.E. one of them rolls and other slides without friction. Then [MH-CET 2000] (a) Rolling disc has greater velocity (b) Sliding disc has greater velocity (c) Both have same velocity (d) The disc with greater radius will have greater velocity. Answer: (b)

Physics Objective type question bank -2

2011-11-11T10:17:00.001-08:00

1.	Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners of a square ABCD, having each side of length L. what is the moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through A and parallel to the diagonal BD? (a) 3mL² (b) 2 mL² (c) (d) mL² Answer: (a)
2.	A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be (CBSE 92) (a) g/2 (b) g/3 (c) g/4 (d) 2g/3 Answer: (a)
3.	The moment of inertia of a thin circular disc of mass M and radius R about any diameter is (MH-CET 99) (a) (b) (c) MR² (d) 2 MR² Answer: (a)
4.	The moment of inertia of a copper disc, rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane (a) Increases f its temperature is increased (b) Changes if its axis of rotation is changed (c) Increases if its angular velocity is increased (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct Answer: (d)
5.	A constant torque of 31.4 N-m is applied to a pivoted wheel. If the angular acceleration of the wheel is 4p rad/s², then the moment of inertia of the wheel is (a) 1.5 kg m² (b) 2.5 kg m² (c) 3.5 kg m² (d) 4.5 kg m² Answer: (b)
6.	A rope is wound round a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 0.5 m. what is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 20 N? (a) 4 rad/s² (b) 5 rad/s² (c) 6 rad/s² (d) 8 rad/s² Answer: (d)
7.	A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg, has length 1 metre and radius 0.5m. then its momentum of inertia in kg m² about its geometrical axis is (a) 2.5 (b) 5 (c) 1.5 (d) 3 Answer: (a)
8.	A wheel rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2 rad/s². if the wheel start from rest the number of revolutions it makes in the first ten second will be approximately (MP-PMT 94) (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32 Answer: (b)
9.	The M.I. of a uniform semicircular disc of mass M and radius R about a line perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through the centre is (a) (b) (c) MR² (d) Answer: (a)
10.	Dimensions of angular momentum is (MHT-CET-2004) (a) [M¹L²T^-²] (b) [M^-¹L^-²T^-¹] (c) [M¹L²T^-²] (d) [M¹L⁰T^-¹] Answer: (c)

Physics Objective type question bank -1

2011-11-11T10:15:00.000-08:00

1.	Radius of gyration of disc rotating about an axis perpendicular to its passing through its centre is (MHT-CET-2003) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
2.	The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg ´ metre². Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotating kinetic energy of 1500 joules, an angular acceleration of 25 radian/sec² must be applied about that axis for a duration of (CBSE 90) (a) 4 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 10 sec Answer: (b)
3.	M.I. of thin uniform rod about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length is The rod is cut transversely into two halves, which are then riveted end to end. M.I. of the composite rod about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length will be [MH-CET 2001] (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (a)
4.	A body having moment of inertia about its axis of rotation equal to 3 kg-m² is rotating with angular velocity equal to 3 rad/s. kinetic energy of this rotating body is the same as that of a body of mass 27 kg moving with a speed of (SCRA 94) (a) 1.0 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 1.5 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s Answer: (a)
5.	For increasing the angular velocity of an object by 10%, the kinetic energy has to be increased by [MH-CET 2001] (a) 40% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 21% Answer: (d)
6.	When a torque acting upon a system is zero then the quantity which remains constant is (CPMT 79) (a) Force (b) Linear impulse (c) Linear momentum (d) Angular momentum Answer: (a)
7.	A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tune is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its end with a uniform angular velocityw. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is, (IIT 92) (a) (b) M w² L (c) (d) Answer: (a)
8.	Two discs has same mass rotates about the same axes. r₁ and r₂ are densities of two bodies (r₁ > r₂) then what is the relation between I₁ and I₂. (MHT-CET-2008) (a) I₁ > I₂ (b) I₁ < I₂ (c) I₁ = I₂ (d) None of these Answer: (b)
9.	The momentum of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about a tangent in its plane is, (MP. PMT 96) (a) (b) (c) MR² (d) Answer: (d)
10.	The M.I. of uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. its M.I. about an axis perpendicular to its plane passing through a point on its rim will be (CBSE 90, 91) (a) 4 I (b) 6 I (c) 8 I (d) 9 I Answer: (b)

Physics Question Bank MHT-CET exam part 2

2011-11-11T10:13:00.000-08:00

11.	M.I. of a thin uniform circular ring about the tangent to the plane of the ring is (CPMT 92) (a) (b) MR² (c) (d) Answer: (d)
12.	A thin uniform ring of mass M and radius R passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. Then its M.I. is, (CPMT 82) (a) (b) MR² (c) 2MR² (d) Answer: (b)
13.	Ratio of rotational K.E. to rolling K.E. of a solid sphere is [MH-CET 2002] (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
14.	A body of M.I. of 5 kg m², rotating with an angular velocity of 6 rad/s, has the same kinetic energy as a mass of 20 kg, moving with a velocity of (a) 3 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 4 m/s (d) 5 m/s Answer: (a)
15.	A thin uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane with angular velocityw. Another disc of same mass but half the radius is gently placed over it coaxially. The angular speed of the composite disc will be (IIT 86) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
16.	A wheel having a moment of inertia of 2 kg m² about its vertical axis, is rotating at the rate of 60 r.p.m. about this axis. What is the retarding torque required to stop its rotation one minute? (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
17.	Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be in the ratio of (a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) (d) Answer: (d)
18.	A particle of mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the +ve direction of the X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum w.r.t the origin (a) Is zero (b) Goes on increasing as x is increased (c) Goes on decreasing as x is increased (d) Remains constant for all positions of the particle Answer: (d)
19.	Torqueses of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. Both of them are free to rotate about their axis of symmetry. If a_c and a_s are the angular accelerations of the cylinder and the sphere respectively, then the ratio will be (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (b)
20.	A dancer on ice spins faster when she folds here arms. This is due to (CPMT. PMT MP 86) (a) Increases in energy and increase in angular momentum (b) Decrease in friction at the skates (c) Constant angular momentum and increase in kinetic energy (d) Increase in energy an decreases in angular momentum Answer: (c)
21.	The moment of inertia of a loop of radius R and mass M about any tangent line will be (CPMT 92) (a) (b) (c) MR² (d) Answer: (a)
22.	A mass is revolving in a circle which is in the plane of the paper. The direction of angular acceleration is (CPMT 83) (a) Upward to the radius (b) Towards the radius (c) Tangential (d) At right angle to angular velocity Answer: (c)
23.	Angular momentum is (CBSE 93) (a) A scalar (b) A polar vector (c) A scalar as well as vector (d) An axial vector Answer: (d)
24.	Which is the wrong relation from the following? (MH-CET 99) (a) t = I a (b) F = ma (c) L = I w (d) I = t a Answer: (d)
25.	Two circular discs A and B have equal masses and uniform thickness but have densities r₁ and r₂ such that r₁ > r₂. their moment of inertia is (MHT-CET-2000) (a) I₁ > I₂ (b) I₁ >> I₂ (c) I₁ < I₂ (d) I₁ = I₂ Answer: (c)

Physics Question Bank MHT-CET exam part 1

2011-11-11T10:11:00.000-08:00

1.	Moment of inertia of a disc about an axis which is tangent and parallel to its plane is I. then the moment of inertia of disc about a tangent,, but perpendicular to its plane will be (MHT-CET-2005) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2.	If radius of solid sphere is doubled by keeping its mass constant, then (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (a)
3.	Calculate the M.I. of a thin uniform ring about an axis tangent to the ring and in a plane of the ring, if its M.I. about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to plane is 4 kg m². (MHT-CET-2006) (a) 12 kg m² (b) 3 kg m² (c) 6 kg m² (d) 9 kg m² Answer: (c)
4.	By keeping moment of inertia of a body constant, if we double the time period, then angular momentum of body (MHT-CET-2005) (a) Remains constant (b) Becomes half (c) Doubles (d) Quadruples Answer: (b)
5.	represents (MH-CET 2003) (a) Rotational kinetic energy of a particle. (b) Potential energy of a particle (c) Torque on a particle (d) Power Answer: (a)
6.	The M.I. of a disc about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to plane is , then its M.I. about a tangent parallel to its diameter is [MH-CET 2002] (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (c)
7.	The M.I. of disc about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is Its M.I. about a tangent perpendicular to its plane will be (MH-CET 2002) (a) (b) (c) (d) Cannot be determined Answer: (b)
8.	The torque acting is 2000Nm with an angular acceleration of 2 rad/s². the moment of inertia of body is (MHT-CET-2004) (a) 1200 kgm² (b) 900 kgm² (c) 1000 kgm² (d) Can’t say Answer: (d)
9.	Four solid spheres each of mass M and diameter 2r, are placed with their centers on the four corners of a square of side a (> 2r). the moment of inertia of the system about one side of square is (DEC 92) (a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (d)
10.	For increasing the angular velocity of a object by 10%, the kinetic energy has to be increased by (MHT-CET-2001) (a) 40% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 21% Answer: (d)

Physics CSIR NET JRF Objective Part -3 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T10:08:00.001-08:00

21.	If the acceleration due to gravity of a planet is half the acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface and radius of planet is half the radius of the earth, the mass of planet in terms of mass of earth is (a) (b) (c) (d)
22.	The radii of the earth and the moon are in the ratio 10 : 1 while acceleration due to gravity on th eearth’s surface and moon’s surface are in the ratio 6 : 1. The ratio of escape velocities from earth’s surface to that of moon surface is (a) 10 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 1.66 : 1 (d) 7.74 : 1
23.	Acceleration due to gravity g in terms of mean density of Earth d (where R is radius of earth and G – universal gravitational constant) is (a) g = 4pR² d G (b) g = (c) g = (d) g = pRdG
24.	The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are (a) M² L² T^-² (b) M^-¹ L³ T^-² (c) M L^-¹ T^-² (d) M L² T^-²
25.	If R is radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the mean density of the earth is (a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer
21. Ans.: (d)
22. Ans.: (d)
23. Ans.: (d)
24. Ans.: (b)
25. Ans.: (c)

Physics CSIR NET JRF Objective Part -2 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T10:06:00.000-08:00

11.	The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11 km/sec. A certain planet has a radius twice that of the earth but its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The value of the escape velocity from this planet would be (a) 22 km/sec (b) 11 km/sec (c) 5.5 km/sec (d) 16.5 km/sec
12.	The escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km per sec. If a body is to be projected in a direction making an angle 45° to the vertical, then the escape velocity is (a) 11.2 ´ 2 km/sec (b) 11.2 km/sec (c) 11.2 ´ km/sec (d) 11.2 ´ km/sec
13.	What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun gets doubled? (a) 1032 days (b) 129 days (c) 365 days (d) 730 days
14.	If escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/sec. then escape velocity from a planet of mass same as that of earth but radius one fourth as that of earth is (a) 11.2 km/sec (b) 22.4 km/sec (c) 5.65 km/sec (d) 44.8 km/sec
15.	A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be (a) g/2 (b) g/3 (c) g/4 (d) 2g/3
16.	A artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E₀. Its potential energy is (a) 2E₀ (b) E₀ (c) 1.5 E₀ (d) -E₀
17.	The distance between centre of the earth and moon is 384000 km. If the mass of the earth is 6 ´ 10²⁴ kg and G = 6.66 ´ 10^-¹¹ Nm²/kg². The speed of the moon is nearly (a) 1 km/sec (b) 4 km/sec (c) 8 km/sec (d) 11.2 km/sec
18.	When body is raised to a height equal to radius of earth, the P.E. change is (a) MgR (b) (c) 2 MgR (d) none of these
19.	A planet has twice the radius but the mean density is 1/4^th as compared to earth. What is the radio of the escape velocity from the earth to that from the planet? (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
20.	The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3

Answer
11. Ans.: (a)
12. Ans.: (b)
13. Ans.: (a)
14. Ans.: (b)
15. Ans.: (c)
16. Ans.: (a)
17. Ans.: (a)
18. Ans.: (b)
19. Ans.: (c)
20. Ans.: (a)

Physics CSIR NET JRF Objective Part -1 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T10:02:00.000-08:00

1.	A satellite is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with uniform velocity v. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, the velocity of the satellite will be (a) zero (b) v (c) 2v (d) infinity
2.	Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G? (a) Cavendish (b) Copernicus (c) Brook Taylor (d) none of these
3.	The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is w and the acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface is g. The cube of the radius of the orbit of a geo-stationary satellite will be (a) r²g / w (b) R²w² / g (c) RG w² (d) R²g / w²
4.	The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from are r₁ and r₂. It’s distance from the sun when it is perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun. (a) (b) (c) (d)
5.	Geo-stationary satellite (a) revolves about the polar axis (b) has a time period less than that of the earth’s satellite (c) moves faster than a near earth satellite (d) is stationary in the space
6.	A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M₀ and diameter D₀. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity which is equal to (a) (b) (c) (d)
7.	Two planets of radii r₁ and r₂ are made from the same material. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity g₁/g₂ at the surface of the two planets is (a) (b) (c) (d)
8.	If g is the acceleration due to gravity of the earth’s surface the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is (a) mgR (b) 2mgR (c) mgR (d) mgR
9.	An earth’s satellite of mass m revolves in a circular orbit at a height h from the surface g is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. The velocity of the satellite in the orbit is given by (a) (b) gR (c) (d)
10.	If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would (a) decrease (b) remains unchanged (c) increase (d) none of these

Answer
1. Ans.: (b)
2. Ans.: (a)
3. Ans.: (d)
4. Ans.: (c)
5. Ans.: (a)
6. Ans.: (c)
7. Ans.: (a)
8. Ans.: (a)
9. Ans.: (d)
10. Ans.: (c)

Physics CSIR Study material Part -3 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T10:01:00.001-08:00

21.	F_g and F_e represents gravitational and electrostatic forces respectively, between the two electrons situated at a distance of 10 m. The ratio F_g/F_e is of the order of (a) 10⁴³ (b) 10³⁶ (c) 10^-⁴³ (d) 10^-³⁶
22.	The value of ‘g’ at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec² suppose the earth suddenly shrink uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of ‘g at the same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the centre of the earth does not shrink) will become (a) 9.8 m/sec² (b) 4.9 m/sec² (c) 19.6 m/sec² (d) 2.45 m/sec²
23.	The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in figure. The kinetic energy of mercury will be greater at (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
24.	The orbit velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is (a) (b) (c) (d)
25.	If the change in the value of g at the height h above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth) (a) x = h (b) x = 2 h (c) x = (d) x = h²

Answer

21. Ans.: (c)
22. Ans.: (a)
23. Ans.: (a)
24. Ans.: (c)
25. Ans.: (b)

Physics CSIR Study material Part -2 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T09:59:00.000-08:00

11.	The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in circular orbit of radius 4R is (a) T/4 (b) 8T (c) 2T (d) T/8
12.	A planet moves around the sun. At a point A, it is closest from the Sun at a distance d₁ and has a speed v₁. At another point B, when it is farthest from the sun at a distance d₂, its speed will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
13.	The period of geostationary artificial satellite of earth is (a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 365 days
14.	If ‘r’ represents the radius of the orbit of a satellite of mass ‘m’ moving round a planet of mass ‘M’, the velocity of the satellite is given by (a) v² = (b) v² = (c) v = (d) v =
15.	A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) may be positive or negative
16.	The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R = 6400 km) (a) 7 km/sec (b) 112 km/sec (c) 12.2 km/sec (d) 1.1 km/sec
17.	If the earth is 1/4^th of its present distance from the sun, the duration of the year would be (a) 1/4 of the present year (b) 1/6 of the present year (c) 1/8 of the present year (d) 1/16 of the present year
18.	The relation between escape velocity and orbit velocity is (a) v_e = (b) v_e = v_orb (c) v_e = 2v_orb (d) v_e = v_orb
19.	There is no atmosphere on the moon because (a) it is closer ot the earth (b) it revolves round the earth (c) it gets light from the sun (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here
20.	If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would (a) decrease by 2% (b) remain unchanged (c) increase by 2% (d) will increase by 9.8%

Answer

11. Ans.: (b)
12. Ans.: (a)
13. Ans.: (c)
14. Ans.: (c)
15. Ans.: (b)
16. Ans.: (c)
17. Ans.: (c)
18. Ans.: (a)
19. Ans.: (d)
20. Ans.: (c)

Physics CSIR Study material Part -1 - Gravitation

2011-11-11T09:57:00.000-08:00

1.	A thief stole a box with valuable article of weight ‘W’ and jumped down a wall of height h. Before he reach the ground he experienced a load of (a) zero (b) W / 2 (c) W (d) 2 W
2.	The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth r are related by which of the following relation? Where g is gravitational constant and R is radius of the earth (a) r = (b) r = (c) r = (d) r =
3.	When the planet comes nearer the sun moves (a) fast (b) slow (c) constant at every point (d) none of the above
4.	Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of arial velocity of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of (a) energy (b) angular momentum (c) linear momentum (d) none of these
5.	The period of geostationary artificial satellite is (a) 24 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 12 hours (d) 48 hours
6.	A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 6R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface of earth is (a) 6 hr (b) 6 hr (c) 5 hr (d) 10 hr
7.	The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are nearly 10¹³ m and 10¹² m respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times would be in the ratio of (a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 1000
8.	A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the earth, then its speed is (a) (b) Rg (c) (d)
9.	If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to 1/R (and not as 1/R²) where R is separation between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a force would have its orbital speed v proportional to (a) (b) R⁰ (c) R¹ (d)
10.	Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star is proportional to then (a) T² a R² (b) T² a (c) T² a (d) T² a R³

Answer
1. Ans.: (a)
2. Ans.: (c)
3.Ans.: (a)
4. Ans.: (b)
5. Ans.: (a)
6. Ans.: (a)
7. Ans.: (c)
8. Ans.: (c)
9. Ans.: (b)
10. Ans.: (b)

CSIR Physics MCQ Questions - Part 3

2011-11-11T09:50:00.000-08:00

21	A cyclist goes round a circular path of circumference 343 m in s. The angle made by him, with the vertical is (a) 42° (b) 43° (c) 44° (d) 45°
22	A cyclist is moving in a circular track of radius 80 m, with a velocity of 36 km/hour. In order to keep his balance, he has to lean inwards from the vertical through an angle q. If g = 10 m/s², then q is given by (a) tan^-1 (2) (b) tan^-1 (4) (c) tan^-1 (d) tan^-1
23	A cyclist turns around a curve at 15 miles per hour. If he turns at double the speed, the tendency of overturn is (a) doubled (b) quadrupled (c) halved (d) unchanged
24	A fighter aeroplane flying in the sky dives with a speed of 360 km/hr in a vertical circle of radius 200 m. Weight of the pilot sitting in it is 75 kg. What will be the value of force with which the pilot presses his seat when the aeroplane is at highest position (g = 10 m/s²) (a) 3000 N (b) 1500 N (c) (75 ´ g)N (d) 300 N
25	A frictional track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R, body slides down the track from point A which is at a height h of 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the loop is: (a) 5 cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) 2 cm

Answer
20. Answer: A

21. Answer: D

22. Answer: D

23. Answer: B

24. Answer: B

25. Answer: D

CSIR Physics MCQ Questions - Part 2

2011-11-11T09:49:00.000-08:00

11	A car has a linear velocity v on a circular track of radius r. If its speed is increasing at a rate of a m/s², then its resultant acceleration will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
12.	A car is moving in a circular track of radius 10 metre with a constant speed of 10 m/sec. A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of 1 metre long. The angle made by the rod with the track is (a) zero (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
13	A car is moving in horizontal circular track of radius 10 m, with a constant speed of 36 km/hour. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of the car. If the length of the simple pendulum is 1 m, what is the angle made by the string with the track? (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
14	A car is moving on a circular path and takes a turn. If R₁ and R₂ are the reactions on the inner and outer wheels respectively, then (a) R₁ = R₂ (b) R₁ < R₂ (c) R₁ > R₂ (d) R₁ ³ R₂
15	A car is moving with a speed of 30 m/s on a circular path of radius 500 m. Its speed is increasing at the rate of 2 m/s². The acceleration of the car is (a) 9.8 m/s² (b) 1.8 m/² (c) 2 m/s² (d) 2.7 m/s²
15	A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road is taking a turn (a) by the gravitational force (b) due to the lack of proper centripetal force (c) due to the lack of frictional force between the tire and the road (d) due to the reaction of the ground
17	A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular road with a speed of 20 m/s. Its direction changes by 90° after traveling 628 m on the road. The centripetal force acting on the car is (a) 500 N (b) 1000 N (c) 1500 N (d) 2000 N
18	A car of mass 800 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, then maximum velocity with which the car can move is (a) 7 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 8 m/s (d) 12 m/s
19	A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it overturns, it is (a) the inner wheel which leaves the ground first (b) the outer wheel which leaves the ground first (c) both the wheel leave the ground simultaneously (d) either inner wheel or the outer wheel leaves the ground
20	A coin kept on a rotating gramophone disc just begins to slip if its centre is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of the disc. The angular velocity of the gramophone disc is then doubled. Through what distance, the coin should be shifted towards the centre, so that the coin will just slip? (a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 16 cm

Answer
11. Answer: A

12. Answer: C

13. Answer: B

14. Answer: B

15. Answer: D

16. Answer: C

17. Answer: B

18. Answer: B

19. Answer: A

20. Answer: A

CSIR Physics MCQ Questions - Part 1

2011-11-11T09:47:00.001-08:00

1	A body is allowed to slide on a frictional less track from rest under-gravity. The track ends in a circular loop of diameter D. What should be the minimum height of the body in terms of D, so that it may successfully complete the loop? (a) D (b) D (c) D (d) 2D
2	A body is moving along a circular path with variable speed. It has (a) a radial acceleration (b) a tangential acceleration (c) zero acceleration (d) both tangential and radial accelerations
3	A body is traveling in a circle at constant speed. It (a) has constant velocity. (b) has no acceleration (c) has an inward acceleration (d) has an outward radial acceleration
4	A body of mass 100 gram, tied at the end of a string of length 3 m rotates in a vertical circle and is just able to complete the circle. If the tension in the string at its lowest point is 3.7 N, then its angular velocity will be ______ (g = 10 m/s²) (a) 4 rad/s (b) 3 rad/s (c) 2 rad/s (d) 1 rad/s
5	A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the difference in its kinetic energies at the top and the bottom of the circle? (a) 4.9 J (b) 19.8 J (c) 2.8 J (d) 9.8 J
6	A body of mass m is suspended from a string of length l. What is the minimum horizontal velocity that should be given to the body in its lowest position so that it may complete full revolution in the vertical plane with the point of suspension at the center of circle? (a) (b) (c) (d)
7	A body of mass m performing UCM with frequency n along the circumference of circle having radius r, force is given by (a) 4pnm² (b) 4p²n²m (c) p²n²mr (d) pnm²
8	A bucket containing water is tied to one end of a rope of length 2.5 m and rotated about the other end in a vertical circle. What should be the minimum velocity of the bucket at the highest point, so that the water in the bucket will not spill? (g = 10 m/s²) (a) 2.5 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 7 m/s
9	A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle with a constant speed. What should be the minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not spill when the bucket is at the highest position? (a) 4 m/sec. (b) 6.25 m/sec. (c) 16 m/sec. (d) None of these
10	A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 metre and the water does not fall down. The time period of revolution will be (a) 1 sec (b) 10 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 4 sec

Answer
1. Answer: B

2. Answer: D

3. Answer: C

4. Answer: B

5. Answer: D

6. Answer: D

7. Answer: B

8. Answer: C

9. Answer: A

10. Answer: D

CSIR Genetics MCQ questions part -1

2011-11-11T06:22:00.000-08:00

1. Which of the following chromosomal alterations would you expect to have the most drastic consequences?
(a) inversion (b) duplication
(c) translocation (d) deletion

2. The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States is
(a) sickle-cell an emia (b) cystic fibrosis
(c) Huntington’s disease (d) hemophilia.

3. There are various procedures that can be used to detect genetic disorders before birth. Among the tests discussed in this chapter, ____ is the least invasive, while ____ carries the highest risk.
(a) chorionic villi sampling . . . amniocentesis
(b) ultrasound imaging . . . fetoscopy
(c) fetoscopy . . . chorionic villi sampling
(d) fetoscopy . . . amniocentesis

4. Tay-Sachs disease runs in Seema’s family. On a family pedigree, she saw a half darkened circle. This represented
(a) a male with Tay-Sachs (b) a female with Tay-Sachs
(c) a carrier male (d) a carrier female.

5. On a pedigree tracing the inheritance of PKU, a horizontal line joins a black square and a half-black circle. What fraction of this couple’s children would you expect to suffer from PKU?
(a) none (b) 1/4
(c) 1/2 (d) 3/4

6. Ram and Nidhi are apparently normal, but their daughter was born with alkaptonuria, an inherited metabolic disorder. If alkaptonuria is like most human hereditary disorders, the probability of their next child being born with alkaptonuria is
(a) 0 (b) 1/4
(c) 1/2 (d) 2/3

7. Several inherited disorders are much more common in close-knit religious communities, such as the Amish(Jews), than in the general population. This is at least partly due to the fact that
(a) people in such communities are more likely to marry relatives
(b) shared environmental conditions such as diet can increase mutation rate
(c) modern medical care is not widely available in such communities
(d) community members care for each other and disorders are possed on.

8. A heritable feature is a ______ and may have two or more variants called______ .
(a) trait/characteristics (b) character/traits
(c) character/factors (d) trait/factors

9. In a cross between two heterozygotes (Aa), the F2 generation will be
(a) in the ratio 1:3 heterozygous to homozygous
(b) all heterozygous
(c) in the ratio 1:1 homozygous to heterozygous
(d) in the ratio 1:3 homozygous to heterozygous

10. You set up an experiment in which you breed two populations of true-breeding pea plants. The first true-breeding population has yellow round seeds and the second has green wrinkled seeds. All of the F1 plants yield yellow round seeds. When you self fertilize the F1 the F2 generation yields a mixture of yellow round, yellow wrinkled, green round and green wrinkled seeds. What does this tell you about the alleles for seed color and shape?
(a) the recessive alleles are always expressed
(b) the alleles are on different chromosomes
(c) the two alleles for each character segregate during gamete production
(d) both genes are on the same chromosome

Check Your Answer

CSIR Genetics MCQ questions part -2

2011-11-11T06:21:00.000-08:00

11. You cross a true-breeding red-flowered snapdragon with a true-breeding white-flowered one. All of the F1 are pink. What does this say about the parent traits?
(a) red and white are codominant
(b) red is dominant
(c) both red and white are recessive
(d) red and white show incomplete dominance

12. While on a field trip in the jungle you find a new species of mouse. You catch a pair and take them back to the lab. In mice, black coat color, B, is dominant to brown b,yet the female mouse gives rise to a large litter in which 9 of the offspring were black, 3 were brown and 4 were white. You conclude that
(a) a new mutation has occurred in the mice
(b) this is an example of polygenic inheritance
(c) there must be an epistatic interaction influencing coat color
(d) the coat color alleles are codominant

13. A new breed of domestic cat, the Indian Curl Cat, has unusual curled-back ears.When the owners of Shulamith, the foundation cat from which the breed arose, crossed her with a normal straight-eared domestic cat in each of her litters roughly half of the kittens had curled ears. When both parents are curl cats, all the kittens have curled ears. What does this tell you about the curled-ear trait?
(a) curled ears and straight ears are codominant traits
(b) curled ears and straight ears are show incomplete dominance
(c) curled ears are dominant
(d) curled ears are recessive

14. John and Jesica are planning a family, but since each has a brother who has sicklecell anemia, they are concerned that their children may develop sickle-cell disease.Neither John, Jane nor their respective parents have the disease. They consult agenetic counselor who tells them
(a) there is very little chance that any of their children will have sickle-cell disease
(b) that all of their children will have sickle-cell disease
(c) that one out of four of their children could be expected to have sickle cell-disease
(d) that its possible that none of their children will have the disease but blood tests on them both will be required to make sure

15. Why is sickle cell disease so called?
(a) because it makes people sick
(b) its named after a special type of white blood cell
(c) pH changes in the blood cells make them collapse into a sickle shape
(d) because its caused by an infectious microorganism that has sickle shaped cells

16. In people with sickle cell disease the red blood cells breakdown, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, pain, brain damage and spleen damage. Affected individuals become paralyzed and can develop rheumatism, pneumonia and other diseases and kidney failure. This is an example of
(a) the polygenic nature of sickle cell disease
(b) the pleiotropic effects of the sickle cell allele
(c) an epistatic interaction between the sickle cell allele and a proteolytic enzyme gene
(d) infectious organisms acting on the sickle cell allele

17. Heart disease, diabetes, cancer, alcoholism and many mental illnesses can best be described as:
(a) symptoms of a bad life-style
(b) infectious diseases caused by microorganisms
(c) multifactorial disorders with a possible polygenic component
(d) all symptoms of Huntingdon’s disease

18. The genetic disease cystic fibrosis is caused by a defective allele that
(a) produces a dysfunctional enzyme that fails to break down brain lipids.
(b) causes hemoglobin molecules to collapse.
(c) produces a defective chlorine-channel membrane transport protein.
(d) produces a neurotoxin

19. Huntington’s disease is an example of a genetic disorder caused by
(a) a late-acting lethal dominant allele
(b) a non-lethal dominant allele
(c) a late acting recessive allele
(d) homozygous recessive alleles

20. Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
(a) budding (b) fission
(c) hermaphroditism (d) regeneration

Check Your Answer

CSIR Genetics MCQ questions part -3

2011-11-11T06:20:00.000-08:00

21. The most common phenotype in a natural population is referred to as the
(a) genotype (b) wild type
(c) autosome (d) mutant phenotype

22. Human males are much more likely to be have hemophilia (a failure of blood to clot properly) than human females. This is the case because
(a) hemophilia is a contagious disease to which males are more susceptible
(b) the gene for hemophilia is carried on the Y chromosome
(c) hemophilia is carried on the autosomes
(d) the gene for hemophilia is sex-linked

23. In a particular species of mammal black hair (B) is dominant to green hair (b) and red eyes (R) are dominant to white eyes (r). If a BbRr individual is mated with a bbrr individual the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1 black-red : 1 black-white: 1 green-red : 1 green-white. However, when you mate these individuals you find that the phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 6 black-red : 1 black-white : 1 green-red : 6 green-white. What could account for this difference?
(a) The genes for hair color and the genes for eye color are carried on different chromosomes
(b) The expected results did not take genetic recombination into account
(c) The genes for hair color and eye color are linked
(d) The genes for hair color and eye color show dependent assortment

24. In the problem no. 23 the observed F2 generation distribution of offspring was: blackred 1,070; black-white 177; green-red 180; green-white1072. Based on this data, what is the recombination frequency ?
(a) 30 percent (b) 7 percent
(c) 17 percent (d) 14 percent

25. How many map units is a recombination frequency of 5 percent equal to?
(a) 2.5 centimorgans (b) 10 centimorgans
(c) 5 centisturtevants (d) 5 centimorgans

26. A linkage map
(a) orders genes on a chromosome based on recombination frequencies
(b) can only be constructed for sex chromosomes
(c) orders genes on a chromosome based on their location with respect to a stained band
(d) shows the actual ordering and spacing of genes on a chromosome

27. A male bee is
(a) X Y (b) diploid
(c) hapliod (d) Z W

28. What is the probability that a male will inherit an X-linked recessive gene from his father?
(a) 0 (b) 25 percent
(c) 50 percent (d) 75 percent

29. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. Its victims are almost invariably boys, who usually die before the age of 20. Why is this disorder almost never seen in girls?
(a) Sex-linked traits are never seen in girls
(b) The allele is carried on the Y chromosome
(c) Nondisjunction occurs in males but not in females
(d) In order to express an X-linked recessive, a female must have two copies of the gene

30. Which of the following human genetic disorders is sex linked?
(a) hemophilia (b) PKU
(c) cystic fibrosis (d) achondroplasia

Check Your Answer

CSIR Genetics MCQ questions part -4

2011-11-11T06:18:00.000-08:00

31. A genetic defect in humans results in the absence of sweat glands in the skin. Some men have this defect all over their bodies, but in women it is usually expressed in a peculiar way. A woman with this defect typically has small patches of skin with sweat glands and other patches where sweat glands are lacking. This pattern suggests the phenotypic effect of
(a) a mutation
(b) chromosome inactivation
(c) RNA splicing
(d) an operon

32. Which of the following is correct with regard to aneuploidy?
(a) inversion
(b) 2n + 1
(c) All aneuploid individuals die before birth
(d) 4n

33. If a fragment of a chromosome breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called
(a) a deletion (b) an inversion
(c) a translocation (d) a nondisjunction

34. Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16?
(a) There are probably more genes on chromosome 21 than on the others
(b) Chromosome 21 is a sex chromosome and 3 and 16 are not
(c) Down syndrome is not more common, just more serious
(d) Extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal

35. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while our closest relatives, chimpanzees, have 24. Chromosome studies indicate that at some point early in human evolution, two chromosomes simultaneously broke into a large portion and a small portion. The large parts combined to form a large chromosome, and the small parts combined to form a much smaller chromosome (which was subsequently lost). This important chromosomal change could best be described as
(a) nondisjunction followed by deletion
(b) translocation followed by deletion
(c) duplication followed by deletion
(d) translocation followed by inversion

36. Each cell in an individual with Down syndrome contains ____ chromosomes.
(a) 47 (b) 22
(c) 24 (d) 45

37. Disorders involving unusual numbers of sex chromosomes show that maleness is caused by the
(a) presence of an X chromosome
(b) presence of a Y chromosome
(c) absence of an X chromosome
(d) absence of a Y chromosome

38. A particular allele can have different effects if it was inherited from a male rather than a female. This phenomenon is known as
(a) extranuclear inheritance
(b) genome imprinting
(c) sex-linkage
(d) Prader-Willi syndrome

39. Human mitochondria
(a) are inherited as an X-linked trait
(b) are all inherited from the father
(c) have linear DNA
(d) are all inherited from the mother

40. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
(a) are found within the nucleus
(b) have linear DNA
(c) carry extranuclear genes
(d) display a Mendelian pattern of inheritance

Check Your Answer

CSIR Genetics MCQ questions part -5

2011-11-11T06:14:00.000-08:00

41. Who demonstrated that genes are located on chromosomes?
(a) Morgan (b) Meselson and Stahl
(c) Chargaff (d) Franklin

42. In Griffith’s experiments, a harmless variant of S. pneumoniae became pathogenic when mixed with a heat-killed pathogenic variant as a result of
(a) conjugation (b) transduction
(c) mutation (d) transformation

43. In an important experiment, bacteriophages were allowed to infect bacteria. In the first trial, the phages used contained radioactive DNA, and radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. Next, other phages containing radioactive protein were allowed to infect bacteria, and no radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. When the experimenters compared the results of these two trials, they concluded that
(a) genes are made of DNA
(b) bacteriophages can infect bacteria
(c) DNA is made of nucleotides
(d) genes carry information for making proteins

44. A geneticist raised a crop of T2 bacteriophages in a medium containing radioactive phosphorus, so that the DNA of the bacteriophages was labeled with radioactivity. The labeled phages were then allowed to infect nonradioactive bacteria. In a few hours, these bacteria burst open, releasing many bacteriophages. Some of these phages contained labeled
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) protein
(d) DNA and protein only

45. Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage T2 and the DNA of phage T4. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages produced in the host cell would have
(a) the protein of T2 and the DNA of T4
(b) the protein of T4 and the DNA of T2
(c) the protein and DNA of T2
(d) the protein and DNA of T4

46. Chargaff found that for DNA
(a) the ratio of A to C is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to T is close to 1:1
(b) the ratio of A to T is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to C is close to 1:1
(c) the ratio of A to G is close to 1:1 and the ratio of T to C is close to 1:1
(d) A + T = G + C

47. The X-ray diffraction studies conducted by ______ were key to the discovery of the
structure of DNA.
(a) McClintock (b) Franklin
(c) Meselson and Stahl (d) Chargaff

48. Which of the following is not true of DNA?
(a) A pairs with T and G pairs with C
(b) Nitrogen bases are 0.34 nm apart on a DNA strand
(c) The double helix is 2.0 nm wide
(d) The double helix is 3.4 nm wide

49. Which of the following is correct?
(a) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with G; T forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
(b) A forms 3 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 2 hydrogen bonds with C
(c) A forms 2 covalent bonds with T; G forms 3 covalent bonds with C
(d) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C

50. Which of the following is not needed for DNA replication?
(a) ribosomes (b) DNA
(c) nucleotides (d) enzymes

Check Your Answer

CSIR Physiology MCQ questions

2011-11-10T08:18:00.000-08:00

Physiology MCQ questions with answer – CSIR NET JRF

41. Which of the following best illustrates homeostasis?
(a) All the cells in the body have much the same chemical composition.
(b) Cells of the skin are constantly worn off and replaced.
(c) When blood CO2 increases, you breathe faster and get rid of CO2.
(d) All organs are composed of the same four kinds of tissues.

42. How does a gastrovascular cavity differ from an alimentary canal? The gastrovascular cavity
(a) stores food but does not digest it.
(b) absorbs food molecules but does not produce hydrolytic enzymes.
(c) has only a single opening.
(d) functions in digestion but not absorption.

43. In humans, most nutrient molecules are absorbed by the
(a) stomach. (b) liver.
(c) small intestine. (d) large intestine.

44. The largest variety of digestive enzymes function in the
(a) large intestine. (b) oral cavity.
(c) stomach. (d) small intestine.

45. Which of the following is not an essential nutrient for a human?
(a) linoleic acid, a fatty acid (b) glucose, a monosaccharide
(c) methionine, an amino acid (d) ascorbic acid, a vitamin

46. Individuals lacking adequate levels of enterogastrone would have the greatest difficulty digesting
(a) fats. (b) proteins.
(c) carbohydrate (d) nucleic acids.

47. It is important to get some vitamin B-1 every day, but it is all right if intake of vitamin A varies a bit. Why?
(a) Vitamin B-1 is an essential nutrient, and vitamin A is not.
(b) Vitamin A can be stored by the body, but vitamin B-1 cannot.
(c) The body needs much larger amounts of vitamin B-1 than vitamin A.
(d) The body requires vitamin B-1, but vitamin A is just an “extra.”

48. How would you expect the digestive system of a hawk, a carnivore, to compare with that of a sparrow, a seed-eater?
(a) The hawk would have a larger gastrovascular cavity.
(b) The sparrow’s digestive system would be longer.
(c) The hawk would have a gizzard, but the sparrow would not.
(d) The hawk digestive system would be longer.

49. Gallstone surgery sometimes requires that the gallbladder be remove. Patients are then advised to avoid ingesting large amount of fat because
(a) the gallbladder makes bile, which is necessary for fat emulsification.
(b) without the bile produced by the gallbladder, fats cannot be enzymatically hydrolyzed.
(c) the gallbladder produces the hormone enterogastrone.
(d) the gallbladder stores large quantities of bile, releasing it when necessary.

50. Researchers provided radioactively labeled food to a dog, and traced the movement of absorbed molecules. Which type of molecule would move along a different path than all the others?
(a) carbohydrates (b) proteins
(c) nucleic acids (d) fats

Check Your Answer

CSIR Botany MCQ question part -4

2011-11-10T08:16:00.000-08:00

Botany Objective type question collection – CSIR NET JRF

31. In the autumn, the amount of ____ increases and the amount of ____ decreases in fruit and leaf stalks, causing a plant to drop fruit and leaves.
(a) ethylene . . . auxin
(b) gibberellin . . . abscisic acid
(c) cytokinin . . . abscisic acid
(d) auxin . . . ethylene

32. Plant hormones act by affecting the activities of
(a) genes. (b) genes and enzymes.
(c) enzymes. (d) genes, membranes, and enzymes.

33. _______ appear to be responsible for gravitropism.
(a) Statoliths (b) phytochromes
(c) Gibberellins (d) Cytokinins

34. A rapid loss of water in specialized cells in the sensitive plant Mimosa pudica causes
(a) the plant to bend toward light.
(b) stomatal opening so photosynthesis can begin.
(c) stress that results in the production of PR proteins.
(d) leaves to droop.

35. A biological cycle with a period of about 24 hours is called
(a) thigmotropism. (b) a circadian rhythm.
(c) photoperiod. (d) abscission.

36. An Rajasthani hunter was worried about being attacked by grizzly tigers, so he left the lights in his cabin on all the time. Plants near the cabin flowered a month early. Which of the following best explains this?
(a) They must have been long-night plants.
(b) The lights must have emitted far-red light.
(c) They must have been long-day plants.
(d) They must have been short-day plants.

37. Most plants flower when
(a) the soil reaches a certain temperature.
(b) the days are of right length.
(c) a certain number of days have passed since they last flowered.
(d) the nights are of right length.

38. A certain short-day plant flowers when days are less than 12 hours long. Which of the following would cause it to flower?
(a) a 9-hour night and 15-hour day with 1 minute of darkness after 7 hour.
(b) an 8-hr day and 16-hour night with a flash of white light after 8 hr.
(c) a 13-hour night and 11-hour day with 1 minute of darkness after 6 hr.
(d) a 12-hour day and 12-hour night with a flash of red light after 6 hr.

39. A chemical change in a substance called phytochrome
(a) causes a plant to bend toward light.
(b) triggers fruit drop.
(c) enables a plant to respond to the presence of light.
(d) is responsible for gravitropism.

40. Which of the following tissues produces voluntary body movements?
(a) smooth muscle (b) simple cuboidal epithelium
(c) cardiac muscle (d) skeletal muscle

Check Your Answer

CSIR Botany MCQ question part -3

2011-11-10T08:15:00.000-08:00

MCQ questions in Botany with answers – CSIR NET JRF

21. After fertilization, the _____ develops into a seed and the _____ develops into a fruit.
(a) ovule . . . ovary
(b) pollen grain . . . ovule
(c) ovary . . . ovule
(d) egg . . . ovule

22. Plants growing in harsh environments such as deserts, sand dunes, and arctic tundra often reproduce vegetatively. This is because
(a) there are few animals available to pollinate them.
(b) they are members of plant families that only reproduce asexually.
(c) fruits would freeze or dry out in these environments.
(d) vegetative reproduction is not as risky as making seeds.

23. In contrast to animals, plants exhibit ______ and _____.
(a) determinate growth . . . persistent morphogenesis
(b) indeterminate growth . . . are not capable of morphogenesis throughout their lifespan
(c) indeterminate growth . . . persistent morphogenesis
(d) growth . . . morphogenesis

24. Which of the following seedlings will probably bend toward the light?
(a) tip covered with a cap made of black plastic
(b) tip separated from base by a gelatin block
(c) tip separated from base by aluminum foil
(d) tip cut off and place a block of agar over half of the cut portion; the side with the agar block will bend towards the light

25. In shoots, branching is inhibited by _____ from the tip of a growing shoot, but this
effect is countered by _____ from the roots.
(a) cytokinins . . . auxins
(b) gibberellins . . . ethylene
(c) auxins . . . cytokinins
(d) gibberellins . . . abscisic acid

26. As leaf lettuce matures, the basal edible leaves suddenly send up a tall flowering shoot. After the plant bolts like this, it no longer produces broad, tasty leaves. Suppose you wanted to prevent bolting so that you could harvest lettuce longer. You might look for some way to interfere with the effects of
(a) abscisic acid. (b) gibberellins.
(c) cytokinins. (d) ethylene.

27. Seeds of many desert plants will not germinate until a heavy rain washes away their
(a) phytochrome. (b) abscisic acid.
(c) gibberellins. (d) auxins.

28. The abscission layer
(a) causes a shoot to bend toward light.
(b) secretes cytokinin.
(c) is the location of the biological clock in a plant.
(d) is where a leaf separates from a stem.

29. When a plant structure such as a leaf is injured, it produces ______, which may cause the part to age and drop off.
(a) cytokinins (b) ethylene
(c) auxins (d) abscisic acid

30. Once a flower is pollinated, changes occur that make it less attractive to insects. Its petals, for example, shrivel and fall off. Pollination must
(a) increase the output of cytokinins in the flower.
(b) block the flow of auxins from the roots.
(c) trigger the release of ethylene in the flower.
(d) increase the formation of phytochrome, which sets the biological clock.

Check Your Answer

CSIR Botany MCQ question part -2

2011-11-10T08:14:00.000-08:00

Objective question answer in Botany – CSIR NET JRF

11. Nitrogen fixation is
(a) using nitrogen to build molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids.
(b) converting nitrogen in the air into a form usable by plants.
(c) recycling nitrogen from organic matter in the soil.
(d) absorbing N2 from the soil.

12. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is
(a) catalase. (b) nitrogenase.
(c) reductase. (d) rubisco.

13. The relationship between legumes and Rhizobium is
(a) mutualistic. (b) parasitic.
(c) competitive. (d) commensalism

14. Mycorrhizae are
(a) nutrients required by plants in relatively small amounts.
(b) plants such as mistletoe that parasitize other plants.
(c) cells that control evaporation of water from leaves.
(d) associations of roots with beneficial fungi.

15. The term alternation of generations refers to a plant’s life cycle alternating between
(a) the production of haploid gametes by meiosis with the production of diploid spores by mitosis.
(b) a haploid gametophyte generation and a haploid sporophyte generation.
(c) a haploid gametophyte generation and a diploid sporophyte generation.
(d) a flower producing generation and a leaf-producing generation.

16. Self-incompatibility
(a) works the same way in all plants.
(b) are all based on the same mechanism of transplant rejection seen in animals.
(c) maintains variation.
(d) is the rejection of a graft by a plant.

17. In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do?
(a) Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell.
(b) One fertilizes an egg and the other fertilizes the fruit.
(c) One fertilizes an egg and the other is kept in reserve.
(d) One fertilizes an egg and the other fertilizes a cell that develops into stored food.

18. What is endosperm?
(a) male reproductive cells in plants
(b) stored food in a seed
(c) cells that make up the bulk of a pollen grain
(d) the fleshy part of a fruit such as an apple or strawberry

19. The correct arrangement of the meristematic tissue of an embryo is
(a) a ring of lateral meristem surrounding apical meristem.
(b) a ring of procambium surrounding a ring of meristem surrounding a ring of protoderm.
(c) a ring of hypocotyl surrounding a ring of radicle surrounding a ring of epicotyl.
(d) a ring of protoderm surrounding a ring of ground meristem surrounding procambium.

20. The scutellum
(a) is a specialized cotyledon found in certain monocots.
(b) develops into the seed coat.
(c) presents a barrier to self-fertilization.
(d) is a specialized cotyledon found in dicots.

Check Your Answer

CSIR Botany MCQ question part -1

2011-11-10T08:11:00.000-08:00

Botany MCQ questions with answer – CSIR NET JRF

1. Mineral nutrients
(a) are not essential to plant growth, since all a plant needs is water and CO2.
(b) contribute little to the weight of a plant.
(c) enter plants via the stomata.
(d) are organic nutrients.

2. Professor Arun claims to have discovered a new macronutrient required for plant growth. Most of Professor Arun’s colleagues are skeptical of this claim. Why might they consider it unlikely?
(a) All the nutrients required for plant growth have already been found.
(b) It is very difficult to prove that a plant needs a certain nutrient.
(c) Plants need thousands of nutrients; a new one is not significant.
(d) Any nutrient needed in large amounts has probably been found already.

3. Soil could be deficient in any of the following nutrients. If you had to supply one of them, which would be needed in the smallest amount?
(a) iron (b) phosphorus
(c) nitrogen (d) potassium

4. Which of the following is a symptom of magnesium deficiency?
(a) yellowing of younger leaves’ prior to yellowing of older leaves.
(b) enhanced plant growth, since magnesium is toxic to plants.
(c) chlorosis
(d) decreased transpiration

5. Topsoil
(a) is the relatively inert upper layer of soil.
(b) does not retain water.
(c) is a mixture of rock fragments, living organisms, and humus.
(d) is uniform in texture.

6. The roots of many aquatic plants have special structures that project above the surface of the water. For example, cypress trees (which grow in swamps) have knees that extend upward above water level. Which of the following is the most logical function of these structures?
(a) obtaining carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
(b) nitrogen fixation
(c) obtaining oxygen for the roots
(d) transpiration

7. The clay particles in soil are important because they
(a) are composed of nitrogen needed by plants.
(b) eliminate spaces for air and facilitate drainage.
(c) fill spaces and keep oxygen out of the soil.
(d) are charged and hold ions needed by plants.

8. Soil can easily become deficient in _____, because these ions are negatively charged and do not stick to negatively charged clay particles.
(a) potassium. (b) calcium.
(c) magnesium. (d) nitrate.

9. Fertilizers are usually enriched in
(a) iron, manganese, and zinc.
(b) calcium, boron, and carbon.
(c) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
(d) molybdenum, copper, and magnesium.http://www.blogger.com/img/blank.gif

10. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil
(a) convert nitrates to N2.
(b) convert ammonia into ammonium.
(c) convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
(d) use nitrates to make amino acids that plants can use.

Check Your Answer

CSIR Biochemistry MCQ question part -1

2011-11-09T09:10:00.000-08:00

1. The pH of the blood is maintained by
(a) mineral salts (b) globulins
(c) albumins (d) haemoglobin

2. A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
(a) actin (b) haemoglobin
(c) myosin (d) myoglobin

3. Potassium cyanide stops cell activity by
(a) preventing diffusion of O2
(b) blocking trachea
(c) preventing transfer of electrons from cytochrome a3 to O2
(d) coagulating protein carriers

4. Successful Replication of chromosomes does not require the presence of
(a) Ribosomes (b) DNA Template
(c) Nuclear enzymes (d) ATP

5. In a diluted starch solution, a-salivary amylase is added at pH 1.6 and kept at 35°C for
half an hour and then Iodine solution is added. What would be the result?
(a) no black colour will appear
(b) black colour will appear
(c) solution will be clear and colourless
(d) solution will be sweet

6. An amino acid devoid of a free-COOH group can be an
(a) Amine (b) Amide
(c) Imine (d) Purine

7. The most striking example of an unique point mutation is found in a disease called
(a) Night blindness (b) Thalassemia
(c) Down syndrome (d) Sickle cell anaemia

8. For the formation of one molecule of hexose sugar, how many turns of Calvin cycle
are needed ?
(a) Six (b) One
(c) Thirty-six (d) One-sixth

9. The hormone that controls pulse rate and blood pressure is
(a) vasopressin (b) oxytocin
(c) adrenalin (d) thyroxine

10. The maximum number of Hydrogen bonds in which water molecule can participate
is?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

Check Your Answer

CSIR Biochemistry MCQ question part - 2

2011-11-09T09:08:00.000-08:00

11. Denaturation of proteins leads to loss of biological activity by
(a) formation of amino acid
(b) loss of primary structure
(c) loss of both primary and secondary structure
(d) loss of secondary and tertiary structure

12. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.76. What is the pH of 0.1 M solution of acetic acid?
(a) 5.76 (b) 2.88
(c) 2.43 (d) 1.88

13. 40 g of ice at 0 °C and 80 g water at 40 oC are mixed thoroughly, the temperature of
the mixture will be
(a) 0° C (b) 10 °C
(c) 20 °C (d) 30 °C

14. Galactose and Mannose are two isomeric monosaccharides, which are
(a) Enantiomers (b) Epimers
(c) Anomers (d) Diastereoisorners

15. Proteins absorbs maximally UV radiation at 280 nm due to the presence of
(a) Tryptophan (b) Tyrosine
(c) Phenyl alanine (d) All of the above

16. Which one of the following solutions will have the least Osmotic Pressure?
(a) 0.5 M glucose (b) 0.5 M NaCl
(c) 0.5 M Na2SO4 (d) 0.499 M Starch

17. The free energy change (DG)at the midpoint of helix-coil transition in DNA melting
curve is equal to
(a) zero (b) 1.0
(c) –1.0 (d) indeterminate

18. DNA is usually dissolved in TRIS-EDTA buffer, EDTA is added to ensure that
(a) DNA is not degraded by nucleases
(b) Divalent metal ions are chelated
(c) Both of the above
(d) pH is kept alkaline

19. Two proteins have same molecular weight and same isoelectric point. The best way
to resolve them will be by
(a) Ion Exchange Chromatography
(b) Gel Filtration Chromatography
(c) Reverse Phase Chromatography
(d) Chromatofocussing

20. Mark the incorrect statement: Ribozyme and Abzyme are
(a) both enzymes
(b) both proteins
(c) RNA and protein respectively
(d) able to hydrolyse phosphodiester and peptide bonds respectively

Check Your Answer

CSIR Biochemistry MCQ question part - 3

2011-11-09T09:06:00.000-08:00

21. DNA sequencing is done on a sequencing gel, which is
(a) SDS-PAGE (b) Urea-PAGE
(c) Native PAGE (d) Agarose

22. The digestion of lipid takes place in small intestine by lipases, However, it does not
occur till bile fluid mixes with the food. This mixing up of food with bile juice is
essential for digestion of lipids because
(a) lipases present in the intestine require another coenzyme present in the bile
juice for its functioning
(b) Emulsification is must for fats to be digested and for lipases to act upon lipids
(c) lipase can only act at alkaline pH
(d) None of the above

23. Mark the Incorrect statement:
(a) Endocrine signaling is relatively slow because it depends on diffusion and blood
flow
(b) If the same hormone has different effects on different target organs, the receptor
are usually different
(c) Water soluble hormones interact with cell surface receptors, whereas lipid soluble
hormones usually bind to intracellular receptors
(d) The specificity of hormone signaling depends on responsive cells possessing
receptors that bond the hormone tightly by means of multiple weak bonds.

24. Silencers are located to upstream of transcription start site and function-
(a) in both the orientation (b) in forward orientation
(c) in reverse orientation (d) None of the above

25. The renaturation of the genome is a random collision of complementary sequences
and follows
(a) first order kinetics (b) second order kinetics
(c) third order kinetics (d) None of the above

26. Which one of the following electrophoresis dependents least on the charge of the
protein?
(a) Free zone capillary electrophoresis
(b) Gel electrophoresis
(c) SDS-polycrylamide gel electrophoresis
(d) Isoelectric focussing

27. Which one of the following compound has the highest group transfer potential for
phosphate ?
(a) Glucose-6-phosphate (b) Fructose-1, 6-diphosphate
(c) 2-phosphoenolpyruvate (d) Adenosine triphosphate

28. Which one of the following sets of glycolytic enzymes is allosterically regulated?
(a) Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase
(b) Hexokinase, aldolase and pyruvate kinase
(c) Phosphofructokinase, enolase and pyruvate kinase
(d) Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase

29. Which one of the following compounds is required for acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl
CoA)to enter the citric acid cycle?
(a) Isocitrate (b) Malate
(c) Oxaloacetate (d) Pyruvate

30. Which one of the following DNA polymerase is essential for both the replication and
repair of DNA?
(a) DNA polymerase I (b) DNA polymerase II
(c) DNA polymerase III (d) DNA polymerase d

Check Your Answer

CSIR Biochemistry MCQ question part - 4

2011-11-09T09:05:00.000-08:00

31. The factor required only for accurate initiations of transcription in prokaryotes is
(a) alpha (a) (b) beta (b)
(c) rho (r) (d) sigma (s)

32. A post-transcriptional processing event that occurs in the formation of both messenger
RNA (mRNA)and transfer RNA (t-RNA) in eukaryotes is
(a) the addition of the sequence CCA to 3′ ends
(b) the removal of introns by splicing
(c) the modification of some of their bases
(d) cleavage event before polyadenylation

33. Eukaryotic mRNAs differ from Prokaryotic mRNAs in that
(a) they do not have a 5′ untranslated region
(b) their coding regions are separated by spacers
(c) they do not have 3′ UTR
(d) they have a free 3′ hydroxy group on each of their ends

34. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that
(a) a given base triplet can code for more than one amino acid
(b) there is no punctuation in the code sequence
(c) the third base in a codon is net important for coding
(d) a given amino acid can be coded for by more than one base triplet

35. Which one of the following sequences is most likely to be a restriction enzyme
recognition site?
(a) CGGC (b) CGC
(c) GTAATG (d) GTCGAC

36. Which step is the first in the formation of a double stranded complementary DNA
(c DNA) target for cloning?
(a) blunt end ligation
(b) DNA dependent DNA synthesis
(c) Restriction enzyme cleavage
(d) Primer annealing

37. Cyclic AMP regulates the lactose (lac)operon by
(a) binding to the operator to turn on transcription
(b) binding to the lac repressor to prevent transcription
(c) combining with the catabolitic activator protein (CAP) to form a complex that
enhances transcriptions upon binding to the promotor .
(d) combining with the CAP to remove CAP’s inhibition of transcription

38. A 4 Kb covalently closed circular (ccc) plasmid has 2 (two) sites for a restriction enzyme
1 kb apart. It is partially digested by the enzyme. The maximum number of bands
that could be seen on a gel will be
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

39. In an enzyme reaction the reaction velocity becomes more than double when the
substrate concentration is doubled. This is possible when the equation governing the
kinetics is
(a) Michelis-Menton Kinetics
(b) Micheils-Menton Kinetics with substrate inhibition
(c) Michelis-Menton Kinetics with product inhibition
(d) Hill Equation

40. A mixture separated on HPLC gives clearly defined peaks whereas in a manually run
column the peaks tend to blend into each other. This is primarily because
(a) the small size of the packing material used in the HPLC column
(b) the better control of flow in HPLC
(c) the use of high pressure in HPLC
(d) the use of better detection systems in HPLC

Check Your Answer

CSIR Biochemistry MCQ question part - 5

2011-11-09T09:01:00.000-08:00

41. Which is true about enzymes,
(a) they always increase rate of reaction
(b) they always decrease rate of reaction
(c) they do not disturb the equilibrium
(d) Always carry irreversible reactions

42. Linkage present in cellulose molecule is
(a) b (1 -> 4) (b) a ( 1 -> 4)
(c) a (1 ->6) (d) both (b)and (c)

43. Blocking action of enzyme through blocking its active site is
(a) Allosteric inhibition (b) Feedback inhibition
(c) Competitive inhibition (d) Non-competitive inhibition

44. Which one of the following is without coenzyme activity ?
(a) Vitamin E (b) Thiamine
(c) Biotin (d) Riboflavin

45. Active transport
(a) Releases energy (b) Require energy
(c) Produces energy (d) Produces toxic material

46. A short length of double stranded DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine
bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 60 (b) 120
(c) 240 (d) 480

47. Which of the following element plays an important role in nitrogen fixation?
(a) Manganese (b) Molybdenum
(c) Zinc (d) Copper

48. Specificity of an enzyme depends upon
(a) Active site (b) Linear sequence
(c) Km (d) Turn over number

49. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylanide
gel electrophoresis because
(a) It helps in solubilization of proteins thereby making it easier to separate
(b) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density thereby making
them move during electrophoresis
(c) Decreases the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis
(d) Stabilizes the proteins

50. In a substitution nucleophilic first order reaction (SN1)the stereochemical outcome is
(a) Raemisation (b) Inversion of configuration
(c) Retention of configuration (d) Difficult to predict

Check Your answer

CSIR cell Biology MCQ question part -5

2011-11-08T06:42:00.000-08:00

41. Photosynthetic pigments are located in membrane on specific areas called as-
(a) Oxysomes (b) Quantosomes
(c) Photosystem (d) Antenna molecules

42. Microtubules are 25 nm thick, 15nm core formed of 13 helically arranged
protofilaments made up of-
(a) a tubulin (b) b-tubulin
(c) Myosin (d) both a & b

43. Intermediate filaments are made up of-
(a) Non-contractile proteins (b) b-tubulin
(c) Myosin (d) Actin

44. In hexose m onophosphate shunt, the CO2 molecules evolved is-
(a) Same as in glycolysis (b) Less then glycolysis
(c) More then glycolysis (d) Much lesser then glycolysis

45. The electron donor during nitrogen fixation is-
(a) Water (b) Ferrocynide
(c) Ferodoxin (d) CO2

46. The chromatin is made up of repitative units known-
(a) Chromosomes (b) Chromonemata
(c) Nucleosomes (d) Nucleotides

47. Exocytosis and endocytosis is absent in-
(a) Amoeba (b) Euglena
(c) Mycoplasma (d) Algae

48. Cytochrome oxidase and cytochrome c deficiency in mitochondria causes-
(a) Menke’s disease
(b) Kearns-says syndrome and Menke’s disease
(c) Kearns-says syndrome
(d) Leber’s optic neuropathy

49. Photophosophorylation occurs in-
(a) Plastids (b) Mitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Cell membranehttp://www.blogger.com/img/blank.gif

50. Which of the following is correct with regard to aneuploidy?
(a) inversion
(b) 2n + 1
(c) All aneuploid individuals die before birth.
(d) 4n

Check your answer

CSIR cell Biology MCQ question part -4

2011-11-08T06:41:00.001-08:00

31. Microsomes are not found in cell in natural condition. They are-
(a) Present only in certain bacteria
(b) Broken pieces of ER during centrifugation
(c) Broken pieces of golgi during centrifugation
(d) Present in certain fungi

32. Among the following which is not present in smaller subunit of ribosome-
(a) Peptidyl transferase (b) Binding site for t RNA
(c) A Site (d) P site

33. Polyribosome are seen in-
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
(c) Angiosperms (d) Mammals

34. r-RNA originates from-
(a) Nucleus (b) Nucleolous
(c) Cytoplasm (d) ER

35. Which organelle is presenting zone of exclusion and have definite polarity-
(a) Golgi (b) ER
(c) Nucleus (d) Ribosome

36. Lysosomes are abundant in-
(a) WBC and osteoblasts (b) RBC and Spleen
(c) Liver and Spleen (d) WBC and Spleen

37. Lysosome membrane is strengthened by cortisol, cortisone, antihistamine, heparin,
chloroquinone and cholesterol but becomes fragile-
(a) Low bile salts and energy radiations
(b) In absence of oxygen
(c) Low Vitamin A & E
(d) Low Progestrone and estrogen

38. Fruit rotting can be checked by slowing down the action of enzyme polygalactouronose
of the organelle-
(a) Golgi (b) Lysosomes
(c) Glyoxysome (d) Peroxisome

39. In prokaryotes where the mitochondria is absent, the site of oxidative phosphorylation
and electron transport chain including dehydrogenases is-
(a) Mesosomes (b) Endosomes
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Microsomes

40. Water soluble phycobillin pigment occur in-
(a) BGA and Green algae (b) BGA and Red algae
(c) Green algae and Red algae (d) Green algae and Brown algae

check your answer

CSIR cell Biology MCQ question part -3

2011-11-08T06:39:00.000-08:00

21. The structure formed where two adjacent membrane are thickened with disc shaped
adhesive material in between and tonofibrils radiating out from adhesive region is-
(a) Gap junction (b) Tight junctions
(c) Desmosomes (d) Plasmodesmata

22. The outer part of cytoplasm is usually termed as-
(a) Plasmasol (b) Plasmagel
(c) Nucleoplasm (d) Protoplasm

23. Endoplasmic reticulum originates from-
(a) Nuclues (b) Nucleulous
(c) Golgi Complex (d) Plasma membrane.

24. The endoplasmic reticulum which constitute 50 % of cell is absent in-
(a) Ova (b) Embryonic cells
(c) Mature erythrocytes (d) All of the above

25. Ribosome are attached to endoplasmic reticulum through glycoprotein known as
Ribophorin I & II. The Subunit of ribosome which get attached to ER is-
(a) P site (b) A site
(c) Large subunit (d) Small subunit

26. How you can separate Gram + ve bacteria from Gram –ve bacteria-
(a) Presence of Techoic Acid (b) Absence of periplasmic Space
(c) Exotoxin Produced (d) All of the above

27. Lysosomes are polymorphous organelles enclosed by a single membrane. They contain
vast array of hydrolytic enzymes which can digest any foreign material except-
(a) Cellulose (b) Starch
(c) Glycogen (d) Lipids

28. Spectrin of erythrocytes and cytochrome c of mitochondria, which can be easily
dissociated by high ionic strength and metal ion chelating agent are example of-
(a) Extrinsic Protein (b) Intrinsic protein
(c) Tunnel Protein (d) Cytoplasmic Protein

29. Fats, Sterol and detoxification are found abundant in-
(a) Adipose cells (b) Muscle cells
(c) Liver cells (d) All of above

30. RER is found abundantly in goblet cells, pancreatic cells and liver cells is mainly
engaged in-
(a) Glycosylation of protein
(b) Folding and Secondary Structure formation
(c) Production of Secretory & cytosolic protein
(d) Production and Excretion of protein

check your answer

CSIR cell Biology MCQ question part -2

2011-11-08T06:30:00.000-08:00

11. Which part of translational modification of proteins does not occur in lumen of ER-
(a) Glycosylation
(b) Ubiquitnation
(c) Conformation folding & formation of quaternary structure
(d) Formation of Disulphide bonds

12. Freshly broken chromosome ends are sticky & tend to fuse, however ends of intact
chromosomes are stable. Their stability is due to presence of-
(a) Centromeres
(b) Telomeres
(c) Special membrane around chromosomes
(d) Kinetochores

13. Plant cell wall is generally made up of-
(a) Cellulose and pectin (b) Cellulose
(c) Chitin (d) Murin

14. Which one of the following is correct for structure of cell wall of fungi and Bacteria?
(a) Both have glycopeptide
(b) Both are made up of N-acetylglucasamine
(c) Both are made up of murin
(d) Both are made up of chitin

15. Nucleus is absent in-
(a) Sieve tube (b) cambium
(c) Phloem parenchyma (d) None of these

16. Among the following which is true cell according cell theory-
(a) Virus (b) Monerans
(c) Protestans (d) Bacteria

17. The characteristic property of metabolically active cell is-
(a) Low nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(b) High nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(c) High volume to surface area ratio
(d) Small nucleus

18. Plasma membrane the functional as well as structural role is played by-
(a) Proteins (b) Lipids
(c) Cholesterol (d) Oligosaccharides

19. Lipid nature of plasma membrane can be destroyed by-
(a) Hexane (b) Benzene
(c) Chloroform (d) NaOH

20. The plasma membrane of intestine is highly folded into microvilli. The main function
of Microvilli is-
(a) To Secrete digestive enzymes (b) To help in blood circulation
(c) To increase its absorptive surface (d) For ageing of worn out cells

Check your answer

CSIR cell Biology MCQ question part -1

2011-11-08T06:27:00.001-08:00

1. In a cell if acidity of Lysome is lost, then loss of:
(a) Phagocytosis of invading bacteria
(b) Elevated phosphatase level
(c) Glycogen degradation
(d) No major effect

2. Bacterial genomes is prevented by its own endonucleases by-
(a) Methylation at restriction sites
(b) Immune mechanism
(c) Nuclease resistant genome
(d) Are not much effective on bacterial genome

3. The function of macrophages is to-
(a) Enzyme Secretion
(b) Engulf Cell organelles
(c) Engulf Foreign Material
(d) Kills Invading Bacteria

4. The difference which distinguish prokaryotic cell from eukaryotic is-
(a) ER (b) Mesosome
(c) Nuclear Membrane (d) Plasma membrane

5. Extra nuclear genetic material is found-
(a) Ribosome (b) ER
(c) Chloroplast (d) Centriole

6. The acrosome of the sperm is formed from the
(a) mitochondria (b) centrosome
(c) lysomome (d) golgi bodies

7. Holiday junction is observed during:
(a) Mitosis (b) Interphase
(c) Recombination (d) DNA Repair

8. A caretenoid less mutant plant was grown under normal sunlight then-
(a) Increased photosynthesis rate
(b) Increased chlorophyll synthesis
(c) Reduced photorespiration
(d) Increased chlorophyll oxidation and necrosis

9. A C3 mustard plant was grown at 300 ppm of CO2 in 14 h light and 10 h dark cycles,
it was transferred to 1000 ppm CO2. This will lead to (other environmental parameters
remaining identical)-http://www.blogger.com/img/blank.gif
(a) Increased photosynthesis (b) Decreased Photosynthesis
(c) Increase in Respiration (d) No Change

10. Presence of AIDS virus cannot be detected by-
(a) ELISA (b) Western blotting
(c) Northern Blot (d) Assay of full-length ds DNA

For Answer click here

Download CSIR June 2011 question paper with Answer

2011-11-03T04:39:00.000-07:00

Download CSIR June 2011 question paper with Answer

Click here to download

Model CSIR Ecology question answer

2011-10-22T04:09:00.000-07:00

1). A rain shadow results in
a). extremely wet conditions due to loss of moisture from winds rising over a mountain range.
b). dry air moving toward the poles that cools and sinks in regions 15° to 30° north/south latitude.
c). global polar regions that rarely receive moisture from the warmer, tropical regions, and are therefore dryer.
d). desert conditions on the down-wind side of a mountain due to increased moisture-holding capacity of the winds coming from the seas.
Answer: d

2). What two factors are most important in biome distribution?
a). temperature and latitude
b). rainfall and temperature
c). latitude and rainfall
d). temperature and soil type
Answer: b

3). Savannas are best described as areas with
a). extremely dry conditions and sparse vegetation.
b). cold, dry conditions with herbs and few trees.
c). warm summers, cool winters, and abundant rainfall which promotes tree growth.
d). seasonal rainfall, few trees, and abundant grasses.
Answer: d

4). The cacti that are found in the deserts of North and South America look very much like the euphorbs that are found in the deserts of Africa. However, these plants are not closely related. The similarities in these plants are due to
a). convergent evolution as a result of similar environmental pressures.
b). artificial selection for these similar traits.
c). differences in rainfall between the two deserts.
d). differences in pollinator species in the two deserts.
Answer: a

5). Which of the following is not a result of an El Niño event?
a). The trade winds relax in the central and western Pacific.
b). The sea surface is about a meter higher at the Philippines than at Ecuador.
c). A rise in sea surface temperature and a decline in primary productivity adversely affect fisheries in Ecuador and Peru.
d). Flooding and strong winter storms occur in California.
Answer: b
6). The neritic zone is best described as the
a). area of water above the ocean floor where a diversity of plankton species are concentrated.
b). ocean floor that is made up of mud and other fine particles that have settled from the water.
c). area less than 300 meters below the surface of the oceans along the coasts of continents and islands.
d). part of the ocean floor that drops to depths where light does not penetrate.
Answer: c

7). The limnetic zone of a lake is best described as the
a). shallow area along the shore.
b). area below the limits where light can penetrate.
c). zone where photosynthesis cannot occur.
d). well-illuminated surface waters away from the shore.
Answer: d

8). In temperate regions, lakes are thermally stratified, with warm waters at the top and cooler waters at the bottom during the summer. The region of abrupt change between these layers is known as the
a). thermocline.
b). hypolimnion.
c). epilimnion.
d). fall overturn.
Answer: a

9). Oligotrophic lakes can be turned into eutrophic lakes as a result of human activities such as
a). overfishing of sensitive species, which disrupts fish communities.
b). introducing nutrients into the water, which stimulates plant and algal growth.
c). disrupting terrestrial vegetation near the shore, which causes soil to run into the lake.
d). spraying pesticides into the water to control aquatic insect populations.
Answer: b

10). The loss of the ozone layer has serious implications for the quality of the environment because
a). ozone (O₃) protects organisms from ultraviolet radiation that can cause cancer.
b). a depleted ozone layer causes rainwater to have a lower pH that kills plant life.
c). loss of the ozone layer causes the sun’s rays to get trapped in the atmosphere and increase global temperatures.
d). a depleted ozone layer can interact with toxic chemicals to increase their effect on organismal health.
Answer: a

For more questions

Biology question answers: CSIR ICMR GATE study materials

2011-10-22T04:07:00.001-07:00

1. Charles Darwin
a. was the first to propose that evolution occurs.
b. was the first to put together substantial evidence in favor of evolution.
c. put forward the idea of natural selection.
d. did both band c.
e. did all of the above.

2. Which of the following would necessarily violate the second law of thermodynamics without necessarily violating the first law?
a. Matter is created out of nothing.
b. Chemical energy increases while electrical energy decreases, and a little heat isgenerated.
c. A container is initially at uniform temperature throughout, but one-half becomes hotter and the other cooler, with no other change occurring.
d. A rock rolls down a hill.
e. All of the above satisfy the requirements.

3. In the light reactions of photosynthesis,
a. primarily green light is absorbed by chloroplasts.
b. ATP is formed.
c. NADPH is formed.
d. carbon is fixed into organic compounds.
e. both band c are correct.

4. Comparing Krebs and Calvin cycles,
a. both involve the generation of carbon dioxide.
b. both involve the net production of organic molecules from carbon dioxide.
c. both generate ATP.
d. both initially begin with acetyl groups from acetyl-CoA.
e. none of the above are correct.

5. Transcription in eukaryotic cells
a. requires RNA polymerase enzymes.
b. can produce RNA molecules that contain introns and exons.
c. can involve enhancer sequences.
d. can involve transcription factors.
e. involves all of the above.

6. A molecule with the molecular formula CgH 70 2N is most likely to be
a. a lipid.
b. a sugar.
c. an amino acid.
d. a steroid hormone.
e. DNA.

7. A membrane separates two solutions. Solution 1 contains 0.5 molar NaCl, and solution 2 contains 1 molar NaCl. The membrane is permeable only to Na+, not Cl-. After time has elapsed,
a. both solutions will contain the same amount of sodium, but there will be less chloride in solution 1.
b. a little net movement of sodium from solution 2 to solution 1 will have occurred.
c. solution 1 will have a positive charge relative to solution 2.
d. both a and c are correct.
e. both band c are correct.

8. A major role of the Golgi apparatus is
a. to sort and package membrane-bound materials.
b. to synthesize membrane proteins and lipids.
c. to make ribosomes.
d. to digest macromolecules.
e. none of the above.

9. Chloroplasts and mitochondria
a. probably arose from prokaryotic cells that invaded eukaryotic cells.
b. contain DNA.
c. are found in plant cells.
d. All of the above are correct.

10. How many ATP molecules are made from each glucose molecule during fermentation?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. About 36

Answer
1. d 2. c 3. e 4. e 5. e 6. c 7. e 8. a 9. d 10. b

Cell structure: CSIR NET ICMR GATE study materials

2011-10-22T04:05:00.000-07:00

1). What type of microscope would you need to view a cellular structure that is 5 nm in size?
a). a light microscope
b). an electron microscope
c). a compound microscope
d). no microscope can resolve down to 5 nm
Answer: b

2). Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?
a). ribosomes
b). cell wall
c). nucleus
d). photosynthetic membranes
Answer: c

3). Which of the following statements is incorrect.
a). DNA in the nucleus is usually coiled into chromosomes.
b). The nucleolus is the site of ribosomal RNA synthesis.
c). Some substances can pass into and out of the nucleus.
d). Red blood cells can not synthesize RNA.
Answer: a

4). Which of the following matches are not correct.
a). ribosomes — rough ER
b). protein synthesis — smooth ER
c). rough ER — export of proteins out of cell
d). smooth ER — cells in intestine
Answer: b

5). Which is the following is not produced by the Golgi apparatus?
a). glycolipids
b). glycoproteins
c). liposomes
d). secretory vesicles
Answer: c

6). What is the difference between a primary lysosome and a secondary lysosome?
a). Primary lysosomes are larger than secondary lysosomes.
b). Primary lysosomes are active, while secondary lysosomes are inactive.
c). Primary lysosomes have a low pH while, secondary lysosomes have a high pH.
d). Primary lysosomes have low levels of protons, while secondary lysosomes have high levels of protons.
Answer: d

7). Proteins that stay within the cell are produced
a). on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
b). in the nucleolus.
c). on ribosomes attached to rough ER.
d). on ribosomes and pass through the Golgi apparatus.
Answer: a

8). What do chloroplasts and mitochondria have in common?
a). Both are all present in animal cells.
b). Both contain their own genetic material.
c). Both are present in all eukaryotic cells.
d). Neither is present in plant cells.
Answer: b

9). Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a). actin–MTOC
b). intermediate fibers–protofilaments
c). microtubules–”+” / “-” ends
d). intermediate fibers –cellular movement
Answer: c

10). Which of the following eukaryotic organelles are believed to have evolved through endosymbiosis?
a). nucleus and mitochondrion
b). mitochondrion and chloroplast
c). nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum
d). chloroplast and endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b

Cell membrane: csir icmr GATE net study material

2011-10-22T04:00:00.000-07:00

1). Why is the phospholipid molecule so appropriate as the primary structural component of plasma membranes?
a). Phospholipids are completely insoluble in water.
b). Phospholipids form strong chemical bonds between the molecules, forming a stable structure.
c). Phospholipids form a selectively permeable structure.
d). Phospholipids form chemical bonds with membrane proteins that keep the proteins within the membrane.
Answer: c

2). Which increases the fluidity of the plasma membrane?
a). having a large number of membrane proteins
b). the tight alignment of phospholipids
c). cholesterol present in the membrane
d). double bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid tails.
Answer: d

3). Which best describes the structure of a plasma membrane?
a). proteins embedded within two layers of phospholipids
b). phospholipids sandwiched between two layers of proteins
c). proteins sandwiched between two layers of phospholipids
d). a layer of proteins on top of a layer of phospholipids
Answer: a

4). What locks all transmembrane proteins in the bilayer?
a). chemical bonds that form between the phospholipids and the proteins
b). hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar amino acids of the proteins and the aqueous environments of the cell
c). attachment to the cytoskeleton
d). the addition of sugar molecules to the protein surface facing the external environment
Answer: b

5). The movement of sodium ions from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called _____.
a). active transport
b). osmosis
c). diffusion
d). phagocytosis
Answer: c

6). A cell placed in distilled water will
a). shrivel up.
b). swell.
c). lose water.
d). result in no net diffusion of water molecules.
Answer: b

7). Sucrose cannot pass through the membrane of a red blood cell (RBC) but water and glucose can. Which solution would cause the RBC to shrink the most?
a). a hyperosmotic sucrose solution
b). a hyperosmotic glucose solution
c). a hypoosmotic sucrose solution
d). a hypoosmotic glucose solution
Answer: a

8). Which of the following processes requires membrane proteins?
a). exocytosis
b). phagocytosis
c). receptor-mediated endocytosis
d). pinocytosis
Answer: c

9). Exocytosis involves
a). the ingestion of large organic molecules or organisms.
b). the use of ATP.
c). the uptake of fluids from the environment.
d). the discharge of materials from cellular vesicles.
Answer: d

10). Molecules that are transported into the cell up their concentration gradients do so by
a). facilitated diffusion.
b). osmosis.
c). coupled transport
d). none of the above
Answer: c